NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. A day care center has asked the nurse to provide education for parents regarding safety in the home. What type of preventive care does this represent?
- A. Primary
- B. Secondary
- C. Tertiary
- D. Health promotion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Primary prevention involves activities that promote wellness or prevent illness or injury. Educating parents about safety measures in the home aims to prevent injuries, making it a primary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and intervention in diseases or injuries. Tertiary prevention involves reducing disability and promoting optimal functioning in relation to a disease or injury. Health promotion encompasses activities that enhance a client's overall health and well-being. In this scenario, educating parents about safety in the home falls under primary prevention as it aims to prevent injuries before they occur.
2. The mother of a newborn who was circumcised before discharge from the hospital calls the nurse at the pediatrician's office and tells the nurse that she is concerned because she has noticed a yellow crust over the circumcision site. The nurse provides which information to the mother?
- A. That it could indicate a sign of an infection and the infant's temperature should be checked every 2 hours
- B. That the crust is to be expected as a normal part of healing
- C. To bring the infant to the pediatrician's office to be checked
- D. To remove the crust, using a warm, wet face cloth and a mild soap
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After circumcision, a yellow crust may form over the circumcision site, which is a normal part of healing and should not be removed. The mother should be reassured that this crust is to be expected. Yellow crusting or discharge is not indicative of an infection, and there is no need to notify the pediatrician. Checking the infant's temperature every 2 hours is unnecessary and may cause unnecessary alarm to the mother.
3. During a genital examination of a male client, a nurse notices wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum. What should the nurse do based on this finding?
- A. Documents the normal finding
- B. Checks for penile discharge, as this indicates infection
- C. Palpates for a mass in the scrotum, as wrinkling suggests the presence of one
- D. Obtains additional subjective data from the client, focusing on the scrotal abnormality
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The penile skin typically appears wrinkled and hairless, without lesions, during a normal examination. Also, the scrotal skin naturally has a wrinkled appearance known as rugae. It is common for the left half of the scrotum to be positioned lower than the right, indicating normal asymmetry. Given these normal variations, the nurse should document the finding of wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum. Checking for penile discharge or palpating for a mass in the scrotum is not indicated based on the presence of wrinkled skin, as this is a normal finding. Obtaining additional subjective data focusing on a scrotal abnormality is unnecessary since the wrinkled appearance is typical.
4. What classification of drug is Diltiazem?
- A. Calcium-Channel Blocker
- B. NSAID
- C. ACE Inhibitor
- D. Beta-Blocker
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Diltiazem belongs to the class of calcium-channel blockers, not NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, or Beta-Blockers. Calcium-channel blockers like Diltiazem are used to treat conditions such as hypertension by relaxing blood vessels and increasing the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart. Therefore, the correct classification for Diltiazem is a Calcium-Channel Blocker. NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, and Beta-Blockers belong to different classes of drugs with distinct mechanisms of action and therapeutic uses, making them incorrect choices for Diltiazem.
5. A teenage client is admitted to the hospital because of acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which of the following organs?
- A. lungs
- B. liver
- C. kidneys
- D. adrenal glands
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acetaminophen is extensively metabolized in the liver. An overdose of acetaminophen can lead to severe liver damage and even liver failure, which can be life-threatening. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although prolonged use of acetaminophen may lead to an increased risk of renal dysfunction, a single overdose does not typically cause life-threatening abnormalities in the lungs, kidneys, or adrenal glands.
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