NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. Which of the following statements, if made by the parents of a newborn, does not indicate a need for further teaching about cord care?
- A. "I should put alcohol on my baby's cord 3-4 times a day."?
- B. "I should put the baby's diaper on so that it covers the cord."?
- C. "I should call the physician if the cord becomes dark."?
- D. "I should wash my hands before and after I take care of the cord."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Explanation: Parents should be taught that putting alcohol or other antimicrobials on the cord is no longer recommended for cord care. This can interfere with the natural healing process and may increase the risk of irritation or infection. Washing hands before and after providing cord care is essential to prevent the transfer of pathogens. Placing the baby's diaper below the cord allows it to be exposed to air and promotes drying, reducing the risk of infection. It is normal for the cord to turn dark as it dries, so calling the physician only if the cord becomes red, swollen, or has discharge is appropriate. Therefore, the statement '"I should put alcohol on my baby's cord 3-4 times a day."?' indicates a need for further teaching about cord care.
2. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 200 mL/hr
- D. 50 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.
3. A client is pregnant for the sixth time. She tells the nurse that she has had three elective first-trimester abortions and that she has a son who was born at 40 weeks' gestation and a daughter who was born at 36 weeks' gestation. In calculating the gravidity and para (parity), the nurse determines that the client is:
- A. Gravida 2, para 6
- B. Gravida 6, para 2
- C. Gravida 3, para 6
- D. Gravida 2, para 2
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The term gravida refers to the number of pregnancies, of any duration, that a woman has had. Parity (para) refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery. Therefore, this client is gravida 6 (pregnant for the sixth time), para 2 (has a son and a daughter). In this case, the correct answer is Gravida 6, para 2. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the information provided. Pregnancy outcomes are often described using the GTPAL acronym: gravida (G), term births (T), preterm births (P), abortions (A), and live births (L). Applying this to the client's history, the GTPAL would be G = 6, T = 1, P = 1, A = 3, L = 2, which further confirms the correct answer.
4. What effect can medication bound to protein have?
- A. reduced drug availability
- B. limited distribution of the drug to receptor sites
- C. less availability to produce desired medicinal effects
- D. decreased metabolism of the drug by the liver
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Medication bound to protein leads to less availability to produce desired medicinal effects because only unbound drugs can interact with active receptor sites. If a drug is bound to protein, it cannot bind with a receptor site, reducing its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because binding to protein reduces drug availability. Choice B is incorrect because distribution to receptor sites is ineffective if the drug is bound to protein. Choice D is incorrect because metabolism does not occur until the drug is removed from the protein molecule by the liver, allowing the protein to return to circulation.
5. When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, which information should a nurse recognize as a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy?
- A. family history of stroke
- B. ovaries removed before age 45
- C. frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats
- D. unexplained vaginal bleeding
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When considering hormone replacement therapy for a menopausal woman, unexplained vaginal bleeding should be recognized as a contraindication. This is because it could be indicative of a serious underlying condition that needs investigation before initiating hormone therapy. A family history of stroke, by itself, is not a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy, unless the woman herself has a history of stroke or blood-clotting events. Ovaries removed before age 45 may actually increase the likelihood of needing hormone replacement therapy due to early menopause. Frequent hot flashes and night sweats, on the other hand, are symptoms that can be relieved by hormone replacement therapy, making them a potential indication rather than a contraindication.
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