Nursing Elites

1. To identify risk factors associated with the use of an oral contraceptive, which question should the nurse ask a client providing subjective data?

• A. Do you normally experience menstrual cramps with your periods?
• B. Do you smoke cigarettes?
• C. Are you currently dieting?
• D. Do you engage in strenuous exercise, such as jogging?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct question the nurse should ask to identify risk factors associated with the use of an oral contraceptive is whether the client smokes cigarettes. Oral contraceptives are associated with an increased risk of thromboembolic phenomena, particularly when combined with other risk factors like smoking and a history of thrombosis. Other risk factors include hypertension, cerebrovascular disease, coronary artery disease, and postoperative thrombosis risk. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to the increased risks associated with oral contraceptive use. Menstrual cramps, dieting, and strenuous exercise are not significant risk factors for thromboembolic events.

2. The nurse has a client who is being transferred to another floor right around change of shift. Which of the following actions is least appropriate?

• A. Inform the staff on the other floor of any unresolved issues with the client.
• B. Ask the charge nurse if overtime would be permitted to complete the client's transfer to the other floor.
• C. Ask the new nurse to take care of the transfer since the client's medical record has all of the information, and a report should not be needed.
• D. Complete the transfer paperwork before the client is transferred.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The least appropriate action in this scenario is to ask the new nurse to take care of the transfer without providing a full handoff of care. It is crucial to ensure a safe handoff during the transfer to maintain continuity of care and patient safety. Informing the staff on the other floor of any unresolved issues with the client (Choice A) is important for the client's well-being as it helps in providing comprehensive care. Asking the charge nurse about overtime (Choice B) demonstrates consideration for completing the task effectively, but it should not take precedence over ensuring a proper handoff. Completing the transfer paperwork before the client is transferred (Choice D) is necessary to ensure all documentation is in order, but it should be done in conjunction with providing a thorough handoff of care to the new nurse.

3. The nurse is assessing an 18-month-old. Which of these statements made by the parent or caregiver would require follow-up?

• A. I'm worried that my child is not using two-word phrases yet.
• B. My child has recently taken a few steps but does not seem stable when standing.
• C. My child seems to have developed separation anxiety when I leave.
• D. I'm letting my child use a spoon to eat.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'My child has recently taken a few steps but does not seem stable when standing.' By 18 months of age, children should have taken their first steps and stand well. If a child hasn't made progress by this age, a physical therapy evaluation may be necessary. It is normal for an 18-month-old to start using a spoon to eat. However, the use of two-word phrases is not typically expected until 2 years of age. Separation anxiety is a common developmental phase that typically occurs between 6 and 18 months, so it does not require immediate follow-up. Therefore, the statement about the child not being stable when standing raises a red flag and necessitates further evaluation.

4. When reviewing a client's medical notes to confirm pregnancy, a nurse should look for which finding to determine that pregnancy is confirmed?

• A. Amenorrhea
• B. Thinning of the cervix
• C. Palpable fetal movement
• D. Positive result on a home urine test for pregnancy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To confirm pregnancy, the presence of palpable fetal movement is a positive indicator. Palpable fetal movement is a certain sign of pregnancy, known as a fetal movement felt by the examiner. Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign of pregnancy as it is reported by the woman but is not confirmatory. Thinning of the cervix (Hegar sign) is a probable sign of pregnancy, which is not confirmatory. A positive result on a home urine test for pregnancy is also a probable indicator. However, a positive pregnancy test result can sometimes yield false-positive results due to various factors like medication, recent pregnancy, or errors in reading.

5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.

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