Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

• A. refusal to walk
• B. not pulling to a standing position
• C. negative Trendelenburg sign
• D. negative Ortolani sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' An 11-12-month-old child not pulling to a standing position may be at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By this age, children typically pull to a standing position, and failure to do so should raise concerns. Refusal to walk is a broader observation and not specific to hip dysplasia. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius muscle, not hip dysplasia. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital subluxation or dislocation of the hip, which is different from developmental dysplasia of the hip.

2. What is the threshold of dextrose concentrations that can safely be administered through a peripheral IV?

• A. Dextrose concentrations below 20% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 20% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
• B. Dextrose concentrations below 5% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 5% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
• C. Dextrose concentrations below 10% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 10% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
• D. Dextrose concentrations above 5% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations below 5% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dextrose concentrations below 10% are considered safe for administration through a peripheral IV, as concentrations above this threshold can lead to phlebitis, causing inflammation of the vein. Concentrations above 10% should not be administered through a peripheral IV to prevent vein irritation. Choice A is incorrect because concentrations above 20% are too high for a peripheral IV. Choice B is incorrect as dextrose concentrations below 5% are too low to be effective. Choice D is incorrect because the statement is reversed, suggesting that concentrations above 5% are safe, which is not true.

3. A client with massive chest and head injuries is admitted to the ICU from the Emergency Department. All of the following are true except:

• A. The physician in charge of the case is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur.
• B. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation for the donor if the client is unable to do so.
• C. The organ procurement organization makes the decision regarding which organs to harvest.
• D. The donor (or legally responsible party for the donor), the physician, and the organ-procurement organization are all involved in the process.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: While the physician plays a crucial role in the process of organ donation, they are not the sole decision-maker. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation if the client is unable to do so. Additionally, the organ procurement organization is responsible for determining which organs are suitable for donation. Therefore, the statement that the physician in charge is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur is incorrect. The correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D are true statements as they highlight the involvement of the legally responsible party, the organ procurement organization, and the donor/legally responsible party, physician, and organ-procurement organization in the organ donation process respectively.

4. When testing the function of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, which parameter does a nurse check to determine their function?

• A. Tongue symmetry
• B. Eye movements
• C. Facial symmetry
• D. Corneal reflex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eye movements. When assessing the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, evaluating eye movements is crucial. This assessment includes checking the pupils for size, regularity, equality, light reactions, accommodation, and extraocular movements in various gaze positions. Tongue symmetry is primarily used to evaluate cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve) function. Facial symmetry is a key indicator of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) function. The corneal reflex assesses sensory afferents in cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) and motor efferents in cranial nerve VII (facial nerve).

5. A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?

• A. Near vision
• B. Color vision
• C. Distant vision
• D. Peripheral vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.

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