which of the following physical findings indicates that an 1112 month old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip
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NCLEX-PN

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1. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' An 11-12-month-old child not pulling to a standing position may be at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By this age, children typically pull to a standing position, and failure to do so should raise concerns. Refusal to walk is a broader observation and not specific to hip dysplasia. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius muscle, not hip dysplasia. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital subluxation or dislocation of the hip, which is different from developmental dysplasia of the hip.

2. A nurse is preparing to test cranial nerve I. Which item does the nurse obtain to test this nerve?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To assess the function of cranial nerve I (olfactory nerve), the nurse uses a wisp of cotton to test the sense of smell in a client who reports loss of smell. The nurse assesses the patency of the client's nostrils by occluding one nostril at a time and asking the client to sniff. Next, with the client's eyes closed, the nurse occludes one nostril and presents a non-noxious aromatic substance such as coffee, toothpaste, orange, vanilla, soap, or peppermint. Choice A, 'Coffee,' is incorrect because it is used to present non-noxious aromatic substances to assess cranial nerve I. Choice B, 'A tuning fork,' is used to assess the function of cranial nerve VIII (acoustic nerve). Choice D, 'An ophthalmoscope,' is used to assess the internal structures of the eye, not cranial nerve I.

3. A healthcare professional is using an otoscope to inspect the ears of an adult client. Which action does the professional take before inserting the otoscope?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an adult client, the healthcare professional should pull the pinna up and back before inserting the otoscope. This action helps straighten the S shape of the ear canal, making it easier to insert the otoscope directly and comfortably. Tipping the client's head down and toward or away from the examiner is not the correct action when using an otoscope in an adult. Pulling the pinna down and forward is typically done when examining an infant or a child younger than 3 years old to straighten their ear canal for better visualization.

4. Which of the following vaccines is not part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is hepatitis A. DTaP, MMR, and Hib are all part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children to protect them against diseases like diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, measles, mumps, rubella, and Haemophilus influenzae type b. Hepatitis A vaccine is not included in the routine childhood immunization schedule but may be recommended in certain situations or regions where the disease is more prevalent. Hepatitis A is generally considered an optional vaccine for children but can be administered based on specific risk factors or regional guidelines.

5. Around what age do children typically start to develop 'stranger anxiety'?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is '6 months.' At around this age, children typically start to develop 'stranger anxiety' as they become more aware of unfamiliar faces and may start showing signs of distress or anxiety around strangers. At 3 months, infants are still very young and unlikely to display stranger anxiety. While by 9 or 12 months, children have usually already developed some level of stranger anxiety, it typically starts around 6 months, making it the most appropriate answer in this context.

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