Nursing Elites

1. When caring for pediatric clients, the nurse should pay special attention to the psychosocial development stages credited to whom?

• A. Robert Peck
• B. Erik Erikson
• C. Sigmund Freud
• D. Jean Piaget

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erik Erikson is credited with the psychosocial development theory and eight stages. The nurse should consider these stages when caring for pediatric clients to evaluate their development. Jean Piaget is known for cognitive development, Sigmund Freud for psychosexual development, and Robert Peck for aging theory. Therefore, the correct answer is Erik Erikson.

2. Assisting with data collection, a nurse notes tenderness while lightly palpating a client's right lower quadrant of the abdomen. The nurse determines that this finding is most likely associated with which anatomic structure?

• A. Liver
• B. Spleen
• C. Pancreas
• D. Appendix

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the Appendix. Tenderness in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen is a classic sign of appendicitis, which is inflammation of the appendix. The appendix is located in the right lower quadrant. The other choices are incorrect. The spleen is located on the posterolateral wall of the abdominal cavity under the diaphragm. The pancreas is located behind the stomach. The liver fills most of the right upper quadrant and extends to the left midclavicular line.

3. A nurse assisting with data collection is testing the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII). Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?

• A. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows and looking for symmetry
• B. Asking the client to clench the teeth, then palpating the masseter muscles just above the mandibular angle
• C. Asking the client to close the eyes and then identify light and sharp touch with a cotton ball and a pin on both sides of the face
• D. Asking the client to close their eyes and then indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse brings the watch closer to the client's ear

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To test the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII), the nurse should have the client close their eyes and indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse moves the watch closer to the client's ear. This action assesses the client's ability to perceive auditory stimuli, as the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve is responsible for hearing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows to check for symmetry is a method to test the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). Asking the client to clench their teeth and palpating the masseter muscles tests the motor component of the trigeminal nerve. Having the client identify light and sharp touch on both sides of the face is a way to test the sensory component of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V).

4. When determining a fetal heart rate (FHR) and noting accelerations from the baseline rate when the fetus is moving, a nurse interprets this finding as:

• A. A reassuring sign
• B. An indication of the need to contact the physician
• C. An indication of fetal distress
• D. A nonreassuring sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse notes accelerations from the baseline rate of the fetal heart rate, particularly when they occur with fetal movement, it is considered a reassuring sign. This indicates a healthy response to fetal activity. Reassuring signs in FHR monitoring include an average rate between 120 and 160 beats/min at term, a regular rhythm with slight fluctuations, accelerations from the baseline rate (often associated with fetal movement), and the absence of decreases from the baseline rate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because accelerations in FHR with fetal movement are not indicative of the need to contact the physician, fetal distress, or a nonreassuring sign. These signs would typically be associated with other abnormal FHR patterns that would warrant further assessment and intervention.

5. If a client has chronic renal failure, which of the following sexual complications is the client at risk of developing?

• A. retrograde ejaculation
• B. decreased plasma testosterone
• C. hypertrophy of testicles
• D. state of euphoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, untreated, the client is at risk of developing decreased plasma testosterone. This condition leads to atrophy of the testicles and decreased spermatogenesis. Retrograde ejaculation is not a complication of chronic renal failure but can occur after transurethral resection of the prostate. The testicles atrophy in chronic renal failure; they do not hypertrophy. Additionally, chronic renal failure often leads to a state of depression, not euphoria.

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