NCLEX-PN
2024 PN NCLEX Questions
1. The parents of an adolescent tell the school nurse that they are frustrated because their daughter has become self-centered, lazy, and irresponsible. The nurse should provide which response to the parents?
- A. That this is normal behavior for an adolescent
- B. That their daughter's behavior may be a part of adolescent development
- C. That this behavior could be a phase as the adolescent explores identity
- D. To restrict any social privileges until the behavior stops
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During adolescence, identity formation is a significant developmental task. Adolescents may appear self-centered, lazy, or irresponsible as they focus on themselves and explore their identity. Erikson describes this phase as identity formation versus role confusion. It is common for frustrated parents to perceive teenagers this way. The adolescent needs time to introspect and develop a sense of self. Suggesting that the behavior requires a child psychologist is premature and not supported by normal adolescent development. Blaming the behavior on parental spoiling is also inaccurate and unhelpful. Restricting social privileges can lead to resentment and rebellion, rather than addressing the root of the behavior.
2. A 65-year-old female client is experiencing postmenopausal bleeding. Which type of physician should this client be encouraged to see?
- A. a radiologist
- B. a gynecologist
- C. a physiatrist
- D. an oncologist
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A gynecologist is the appropriate physician for this scenario as they specialize in treating and managing diseases of the female reproductive system, including postmenopausal bleeding. Postmenopausal bleeding can indicate serious conditions such as endometrial cancer, which a gynecologist can evaluate and manage. A radiologist primarily evaluates X-rays and imaging studies, not directly involved in managing gynecological issues. A physiatrist is a specialist in physical medicine and rehabilitation, not related to gynecological concerns. An oncologist specializes in diagnosing and treating cancer, which is not the primary concern in this case of postmenopausal bleeding.
3. During the examination of a client's throat, a nurse touches the posterior wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex. The nurse documents normal function of which cranial nerves?
- A. Cranial nerves V and VI
- B. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
- C. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
- D. Cranial nerves IX and X
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). When the nurse touches the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex, it indicates normal function of these nerves. Cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VI (abducens nerve) are not directly responsible for the gag reflex. Cranial nerves XII (hypoglossal nerve) and VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve) are not directly involved in eliciting the gag reflex. Testing cranial nerve I involves smell function, and cranial nerve II is related to eye examinations, making them irrelevant in this scenario.
4. A teenage client is admitted to the hospital because of acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which of the following organs?
- A. lungs
- B. liver
- C. kidneys
- D. adrenal glands
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acetaminophen is extensively metabolized in the liver. An overdose of acetaminophen can lead to severe liver damage and even liver failure, which can be life-threatening. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although prolonged use of acetaminophen may lead to an increased risk of renal dysfunction, a single overdose does not typically cause life-threatening abnormalities in the lungs, kidneys, or adrenal glands.
5. A client with peripheral artery disease tells the nurse that pain develops in his left calf when he is walking and subsides with rest. The nurse documents that the client is most likely experiencing which disorder?
- A. Venous insufficiency
- B. Intermittent claudication
- C. Sore muscles from overexertion
- D. Muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Leg pain characteristic of peripheral artery disease is known as intermittent claudication. The client can walk only a certain distance before cramping, burning, muscle discomfort, or pain forces them to stop, with the pain subsiding after rest. The pain is reproducible, and as the disease progresses, the client can walk shorter distances before the pain recurs. Ultimately, pain may even occur at rest. Venous insufficiency (Choice A) involves impaired blood flow in the veins, leading to swelling and skin changes but not typically pain associated with exercise. Sore muscles from overexertion (Choice C) and muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems (Choice D) do not present with the characteristic pattern of pain associated with peripheral artery disease.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access