NCLEX-PN
2024 PN NCLEX Questions
1. The parents of an adolescent tell the school nurse that they are frustrated because their daughter has become self-centered, lazy, and irresponsible. The nurse should provide which response to the parents?
- A. That this is normal behavior for an adolescent
- B. That their daughter's behavior may be a part of adolescent development
- C. That this behavior could be a phase as the adolescent explores identity
- D. To restrict any social privileges until the behavior stops
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During adolescence, identity formation is a significant developmental task. Adolescents may appear self-centered, lazy, or irresponsible as they focus on themselves and explore their identity. Erikson describes this phase as identity formation versus role confusion. It is common for frustrated parents to perceive teenagers this way. The adolescent needs time to introspect and develop a sense of self. Suggesting that the behavior requires a child psychologist is premature and not supported by normal adolescent development. Blaming the behavior on parental spoiling is also inaccurate and unhelpful. Restricting social privileges can lead to resentment and rebellion, rather than addressing the root of the behavior.
2. A nurse is preparing to assess a client for the presence of the Tinel sign. Which action does the nurse take to elicit this sign?
- A. Testing for the strength of each muscle joint
- B. Percussing at the location of the median nerve
- C. Checking for repetitive movements in the joints
- D. Asking the client to flex the wrist 90 degrees while holding the hands back to back
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Tinel sign is elicited by percussing at the location of the median nerve at the wrist. In carpal tunnel syndrome, this test can produce burning and tingling along the nerve's distribution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Testing for the strength of each muscle joint and checking for repetitive movements in the joints involve different assessments unrelated to the Tinel sign. Asking the client to flex the wrist 90 degrees while holding the hands back to back is associated with the Phalen test, which is another evaluation for carpal tunnel syndrome.
3. When inspecting the ears for cerumen impaction, the nurse checks for which finding?
- A. Redness and swelling of the tympanic membrane
- B. An external auditory canal that is longer than normal
- C. The presence of edema in the external auditory canal
- D. A yellowish or brownish waxy material in the external auditory canal
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When inspecting the ears for cerumen impaction, the nurse should look for a yellowish or brownish waxy material in the external auditory canal. Cerumen, also known as ear wax, is a secretion that can become impacted due to various reasons. It is produced by the vestigial apocrine sweat glands in the external ear canal. Cerumen may partially obscure the eardrum or totally occlude the ear canal. The other options, redness and swelling of the tympanic membrane, an external auditory canal that is longer than normal, and the presence of edema in the external auditory canal, are not indicative findings of cerumen impaction.
4. Which of the following actions should the LPN perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order? Select all that apply.
- A. plug the patient to the ECG Monitor
- B. Administer the medication over at least 5 minutes.
- C. Monitor respirations during administration.
- D. Monitor the client's pulse for 1 minute prior to administration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct actions for the LPN to perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order are to monitor ECG rhythm throughout administration and monitor the client's pulse for 1 minute prior to administration. These actions are crucial as digoxin affects the heart's electrical activity, and it should not be administered if the client's pulse is less than 60 bpm. Monitoring respirations and blood pressure are not directly associated with digoxin administration. Administering IV medications is typically outside the LPN's scope of practice.
5. A middle-aged woman tells the nurse that she has been experiencing irregular menses for the past six months. The nurse should assess the woman for other symptoms of:
- A. climacteric
- B. menopause
- C. perimenopause
- D. postmenopause
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Perimenopause refers to a period during which hormonal changes occur gradually, ovarian function diminishes, and menses become irregular. Perimenopause typically lasts around five years. Climacteric is a term that describes the period when physiologic changes result in the cessation of a woman's reproductive ability and decreased sexual activity. This term applies to both genders. Menopause is the time when menstruation permanently stops. Postmenopause refers to the period after menopausal changes are complete. In this scenario, the woman's irregular menses indicate she is likely in the perimenopausal stage, experiencing hormonal fluctuations and changes.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access