Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate initial action for a newborn infant with low blood glucose?

• A. Ask the registered nurse to draw another blood sample in 2 hours and repeat the test
• B. Contact the healthcare provider
• C. Contact the registered nurse
• D. Document the results in the newborn's medical record

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The blood glucose level for a newborn infant should remain greater than 40 mg/dL to prevent permanent brain damage. When dealing with low blood glucose in a newborn, the most appropriate initial action is to contact the registered nurse. The nurse will obtain prescriptions regarding feeding the infant with low blood glucose and follow agency policies on feeding infants in such conditions. It is common practice to feed the infant if the glucose level is 40 mg/dL or less. Asking the registered nurse to draw another blood sample in 2 hours and repeating the test is not the most appropriate immediate action, as timely intervention is crucial in this situation. Contacting the healthcare provider may cause unnecessary delays since the registered nurse is usually the first point of contact for immediate actions in this scenario. Documenting the results in the newborn's medical record is essential, but it is not the initial step in managing low blood glucose in a newborn.

2. The LPN is caring for a client newly diagnosed with HIV. Which statement made by the client regarding antiretroviral therapy (ART) would require correction from the nurse?

• A. "If I start ART and use condoms, I'm less likely to transmit HIV to my partner."?
• B. "I can still use ART even though I am Hepatitis C positive."?
• C. "I will need to be on ART indefinitely."?
• D. "I know I will need to come back for blood draws so that I can begin ART when my CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the statement, "I know I will need to come back for blood draws so that I can begin ART when my CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3."? This statement would require correction from the nurse because initiating ART when the CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not supported by guidelines. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends making treatment a priority for those with a CD4 count of ?350 cells/mm3, as early intervention can help delay disease progression. Therefore, waiting for a CD4 count of over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not in line with current recommendations. Choice A is correct, as studies have shown that using condoms along with ART can significantly reduce the risk of HIV transmission to sexual partners. Choice B is also correct because being Hepatitis C positive does not contraindicate the use of ART. Choice C is correct as well, as ART is typically needed indefinitely to maintain viral suppression and manage HIV. Therefore, the only statement that would require correction is Choice D.

3. To identify risk factors associated with the use of an oral contraceptive, which question should the nurse ask a client providing subjective data?

• A. Do you normally experience menstrual cramps with your periods?
• B. Do you smoke cigarettes?
• C. Are you currently dieting?
• D. Do you engage in strenuous exercise, such as jogging?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct question the nurse should ask to identify risk factors associated with the use of an oral contraceptive is whether the client smokes cigarettes. Oral contraceptives are associated with an increased risk of thromboembolic phenomena, particularly when combined with other risk factors like smoking and a history of thrombosis. Other risk factors include hypertension, cerebrovascular disease, coronary artery disease, and postoperative thrombosis risk. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to the increased risks associated with oral contraceptive use. Menstrual cramps, dieting, and strenuous exercise are not significant risk factors for thromboembolic events.

4. While assisting with data collection, the client informs the nurse that he is having difficulty swallowing medications and food. The nurse gathers additional subjective data and documents that the client is experiencing which disorder?

• A. Pyrosis
• B. Anorexia
• C. Eructation
• D. Dysphagia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Dysphagia.' Dysphagia is the term used to indicate difficulty swallowing, which can occur in disorders of the throat or esophagus. Anorexia refers to a loss of appetite, not difficulty swallowing. Eructation is the medical term for belching, not difficulty swallowing. Pyrosis is heartburn, a burning sensation in the esophagus and stomach caused by the reflux of gastric acid, not difficulty swallowing.

5. When a client wishes to improve her appearance by removing excess skin from her face and neck, the nurse should provide teaching regarding which of the following procedures?

• A. dermabrasion
• B. rhinoplasty
• C. blepharoplasty
• D. rhytidectomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'rhytidectomy.' Rhytidectomy, commonly known as a face-lift, is the procedure for removing excess skin from the face and neck. Dermabrasion involves spraying a chemical to freeze the skin lightly, followed by abrasion with sandpaper or a revolving wire brush, used for removing scars, severe acne, and tattoo pigment. Rhinoplasty is for improving the nose's appearance by reshaping the nasal skeleton and overlying skin. Blepharoplasty removes loose and protruding fat from the upper and lower eyelids. Therefore, when a client wants to address excess skin in the face and neck, rhytidectomy is the appropriate procedure.

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