Nursing Elites

1. A mother brings her 1-year-old child to the clinic. The child has no record of previous immunizations, and the mother confirms the child has not been immunized. Teaching by the nurse should include which of the following?

• A. Immunizations may be started at any age.
• B. The recommended immunization schedule should be followed.
• C. If a primary series of immunizations is interrupted, it can be continued.
• D. Delaying the start of vaccines does not increase the risk of reaction.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Immunizations may be started at any age.' While there is a recommended immunization schedule, immunizations can be initiated at any age. It is essential to emphasize the flexibility in starting immunizations. The statement 'The recommended immunization schedule should be followed' is too rigid; while recommended, there is flexibility in initiation. Choice C is correct as an interrupted series can be continued without restarting. The statement 'Delaying the start of vaccines does not increase the risk of reaction' is correct. Delaying does not increase the risk of reaction; in fact, it is important to start immunizations to protect the child and the community.

2. Around what age do children typically start to develop 'stranger anxiety'?

• A. 9 months
• B. 6 months
• C. 3 months
• D. 12 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is '6 months.' At around this age, children typically start to develop 'stranger anxiety' as they become more aware of unfamiliar faces and may start showing signs of distress or anxiety around strangers. At 3 months, infants are still very young and unlikely to display stranger anxiety. While by 9 or 12 months, children have usually already developed some level of stranger anxiety, it typically starts around 6 months, making it the most appropriate answer in this context.

3. A nurse notes that a client's physical examination record states that the client's eyes moved normally through the six cardinal fields of gaze. The nurse interprets this to mean that which aspect of eye function is normal?

• A. Near vision
• B. Central vision
• C. Peripheral vision
• D. Ocular movements

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ocular movements.' Moving the eyes through the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of the eye muscles, such as the medial rectus muscle, superior rectus muscle, superior oblique muscle, lateral rectus muscle, inferior rectus muscle, and inferior oblique muscle. Normal movement in these fields indicates proper ocular movements. Near vision is assessed using a handheld vision screener, central vision with a Snellen chart, and peripheral vision through the confrontation test. Therefore, the evaluation of ocular movements through the six cardinal fields of gaze specifically assesses this aspect of eye function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to different aspects of vision function that are evaluated using distinct assessment methods, not through the six cardinal fields of gaze.

4. How should a client's neck be positioned for palpation of the thyroid?

• A. flexed toward the side being examined
• B. hyperextended directly backward
• C. flexed away from the side being examined
• D. flexed directly forward

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to position a client's neck for palpation of the thyroid is to have it flexed toward the side being examined. This positioning helps to better access and palpate the thyroid gland. Option B, hyperextending the neck directly backward, is incorrect as it can make palpation more difficult and uncomfortable for the client. Option C, flexing the neck away from the side being examined, is also incorrect as it may obscure the thyroid gland, making it harder to palpate. Option D, flexing the neck directly forward, is not ideal for thyroid palpation as it does not provide the best access to the gland.

5. The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles.
• B. When refrigerating formula, discard partially used bottles after 24 hours.
• C. When using formula concentrate, mix one part concentrate and two parts water.
• D. If a portion of one bottle is left for the next feeding, discard it.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles. It is crucial to be cautious when heating bottles in a microwave to prevent milk from becoming superheated. The defrost setting is recommended, and the formula's temperature should always be checked before feeding the baby. Choice B, which advises to discard partially used bottles of refrigerated formula after 24 hours, is also correct. This is important to prevent the introduction of pathogens by the baby into the formula. Choice C, recommending mixing one part formula concentrate with two parts water, is essential for ensuring the correct dilution. Choice D, suggesting to discard any remaining portion of a bottle for the next feeding, is incorrect. It is not necessary to discard the remaining portion if it has been refrigerated promptly and used within a safe time frame. Adding fresh formula to a partially used bottle is not recommended, as it can lead to the growth of pathogens that may be transferred to the new formula.

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