Nursing Elites

1. A nurse, assigned to care for a hospitalized child who is 8 years old, assists with planning care, taking into account Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development. According to Erikson's theory, which task represents the primary developmental task of this child?

• A. Developing a sense of control over self and body functions
• B. Mastering useful skills and tools
• C. Gaining independence from parents
• D. Developing a sense of trust in the world

Correct answer: B

Rationale: According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, the primary task for an 8-year-old child aligns with the stage of industry versus inferiority. This stage focuses on mastering useful skills and tools of the culture, emphasizing competence in various areas. Option A, 'Developing a sense of control over self and body functions,' is more characteristic of the toddler stage, emphasizing autonomy and self-regulation. Option C, 'Gaining independence from parents,' is more relevant to the adolescent stage, where identity development and autonomy become crucial. Option D, 'Developing a sense of trust in the world,' pertains to the infant stage, highlighting the importance of forming secure attachments. Therefore, the correct answer is B as it directly corresponds to the developmental tasks associated with an 8-year-old child according to Erikson's theory.

2. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

3. Which of the following values should be monitored closely while a client is on total parenteral nutrition?

• A. calcium
• B. magnesium
• C. glucose
• D. cholesterol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Glucose is the correct value to monitor closely while a client is on total parenteral nutrition. Total parenteral nutrition solutions have high glucose concentrations, necessitating monitoring to prevent complications like hyperglycemia. Calcium, magnesium, and cholesterol are not typically closely monitored during total parenteral nutrition as they are not directly related to the solution's composition or potential associated complications.

4. A nurse auscultating the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a pregnant client in the first trimester of pregnancy notes that the FHR is 160 beats/min. With this information, what should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding.
• B. Document the findings.
• C. Tell the client that the FHR is faster than normal but that it is nothing to be concerned about at this time.
• D. Wait 15 minutes and then recheck the FHR.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An FHR of 160 beats/min in the first trimester of pregnancy is within the normal range, which is generally 120 to 160 beats/min. The appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to document the findings. There is no need to notify the healthcare provider as this is a normal finding. Informing the client that the FHR is faster than normal may cause unnecessary anxiety, as it falls within the expected range. Waiting to recheck the FHR is not necessary since the rate is already within the normal range.

5. A nurse is preparing to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant. Which piece of equipment does the nurse use to assess the FHR?

• A. Stethoscope
• B. Doppler transducer
• C. Fetoscope
• D. Pulse oximetry on the client and a fetoscope

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To assess the fetal heart rate of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant, the nurse should use a Doppler transducer. Fetal heart sounds can be heard with a fetoscope by 20 weeks of gestation. The Doppler transducer amplifies fetal heart sounds so that they are audible by 10 to 12 weeks of gestation, making it the most appropriate choice for this scenario. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard with a stethoscope. Pulse oximetry is not used to auscultate fetal heart sounds, so it is an incorrect choice in this context.

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