Nursing Elites

1. The client provides information to a pregnant client who is experiencing nausea and vomiting about measures to relieve the discomfort. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for further information?

• A. ''I should eat five or six small meals a day rather than three full meals.''
• B. ''I need to be sure not to drink liquids with my meals.''
• C. ''I should keep dry crackers at my bedside and eat them before I get out of bed in the morning.''
• D. ''I need to avoid eating fried or greasy foods.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To alleviate nausea and vomiting, the client should avoid drinking liquids with meals. The client should keep dry crackers at her bedside, avoid fried foods, and eat smaller meals. Additionally, the client should eat dry crackers every 2 hours to prevent an empty stomach and avoid spicy foods and foods with strong odors, such as onion and cabbage. The incorrect choices are: A) Eating five or six small meals a day instead of three full meals is a correct recommendation. C) Keeping dry crackers at her bedside and eating them before getting out of bed in the morning is a helpful suggestion. D) Avoiding fried or greasy foods is a valid advice to alleviate nausea and vomiting.

2. When planning for the physical assessment of the woman, the nurse ensures that which occurs?

• A. The woman is examined by a female health care provider.
• B. The woman's husband remains in the examining room at all times.
• C. The woman is examined without any other people in the examining room.
• D. Written permission is obtained from the woman to obtain subjective health data.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In many cultures, including Muslim, Hindu, and Latino, modesty is important, and exposure of a woman's genitals to men is considered demeaning. To respect the patient's cultural beliefs and modesty, it is best for a female health care provider to perform the examination. This practice helps to ensure the patient's comfort and adherence to cultural norms. Having the woman examined without any other people in the room (Choice C) may not address the cultural sensitivity required for this situation. Having the woman's husband remain in the examining room at all times (Choice B) may not align with the patient's cultural preferences and may cause discomfort. Written permission from the woman to obtain subjective health data (Choice D) is not directly related to ensuring a culturally sensitive physical assessment in this context.

3. In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?

• A. measles, polio, pertussis, hepatitis B
• B. diphtheria, pertussis, polio, tetanus
• C. rubella, polio, pertussis, hepatitis A
• D. measles, mumps, rubella, polio

Correct answer: B

Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received the DTaP (diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus) vaccine along with the polio vaccine. The MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine is not typically given until the child is 12-15 months old. Therefore, option B is correct as it includes vaccines that are usually administered by 12 months of age. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they include vaccines that are typically given after 12 months of age.

4. Around what age do children typically start to develop 'stranger anxiety'?

• A. 9 months
• B. 6 months
• C. 3 months
• D. 12 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is '6 months.' At around this age, children typically start to develop 'stranger anxiety' as they become more aware of unfamiliar faces and may start showing signs of distress or anxiety around strangers. At 3 months, infants are still very young and unlikely to display stranger anxiety. While by 9 or 12 months, children have usually already developed some level of stranger anxiety, it typically starts around 6 months, making it the most appropriate answer in this context.

5. A client with massive chest and head injuries is admitted to the ICU from the Emergency Department. All of the following are true except:

• A. The physician in charge of the case is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur.
• B. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation for the donor if the client is unable to do so.
• C. The organ procurement organization makes the decision regarding which organs to harvest.
• D. The donor (or legally responsible party for the donor), the physician, and the organ-procurement organization are all involved in the process.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: While the physician plays a crucial role in the process of organ donation, they are not the sole decision-maker. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation if the client is unable to do so. Additionally, the organ procurement organization is responsible for determining which organs are suitable for donation. Therefore, the statement that the physician in charge is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur is incorrect. The correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D are true statements as they highlight the involvement of the legally responsible party, the organ procurement organization, and the donor/legally responsible party, physician, and organ-procurement organization in the organ donation process respectively.

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