Nursing Elites

1. When administering a nasal spray medication, what should the client do before the medication is administered?

• A. The client should blow their nose gently before the medication is administered.
• B. The medication should be sprayed into the nostril.
• C. The medication should be administered as the client inhales.
• D. The client should sit upright when the medication is administered.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should blow their nose gently before the medication is administered. This step helps clear the nasal passages, ensuring that the medication can reach its intended target. Choice B is incorrect as the nasal spray should be directed into the nostril, not just in front of the nose. Administering the medication as the client inhales (Choice C) is crucial to ensure proper delivery, as it helps the medication reach the desired areas. Choice D is incorrect because the client should be sitting upright, not lying flat, when administering nasal spray medication to allow for better absorption and prevent the medication from flowing out.

2. A client states, "I eat a well-balanced diet. I do not smoke. I exercise regularly, and I have a yearly checkup with my physician. What else can I do to help prevent cancer?"? The nurse should respond with which of the following statements?

• A. Sleep at least 6-8 hours per night.
• B. Practice monthly self-breast examinations.
• C. Reduce stress.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the choices are methods of preventing cancer. Sleep is important in maintaining homeostasis, which helps the body respond to disease. Monthly breast examination can indicate cancer or fibrocystic disease. Stress can have a physiological response in the body that decreases the immune response and increases the risk of disease. Therefore, all the options provided are important in cancer prevention, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Option A is crucial for overall health and immune function, option B aids in early detection, and option C is vital as chronic stress can weaken the immune system.

3. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

4. As part of a routine health screening, the nurse notes the play of a 2-year-old child. Which of the following is an example of age-appropriate play at this age?

• A. builds towers with several blocks
• B. tries to color within the lines
• C. says 'Mine!' when playing with toys
• D. tries to jump rope

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'says 'Mine!' when playing with toys.' At the age of 2, children are in the stage of parallel play and are possessive of their belongings, hence saying 'Mine!' is an age-appropriate behavior. Building towers with blocks (choice A) involves more advanced motor skills and cognitive abilities, which are beyond what most 2-year-olds can do. Trying to color within the lines (choice B) requires fine motor skills that are typically not developed at age 2. Jumping rope (choice D) involves coordination and balance that are beyond the capabilities of a 2-year-old child.

5. A client with peripheral artery disease tells the nurse that pain develops in his left calf when he is walking and subsides with rest. The nurse documents that the client is most likely experiencing which disorder?

• A. Venous insufficiency
• B. Intermittent claudication
• C. Sore muscles from overexertion
• D. Muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Leg pain characteristic of peripheral artery disease is known as intermittent claudication. The client can walk only a certain distance before cramping, burning, muscle discomfort, or pain forces them to stop, with the pain subsiding after rest. The pain is reproducible, and as the disease progresses, the client can walk shorter distances before the pain recurs. Ultimately, pain may even occur at rest. Venous insufficiency (Choice A) involves impaired blood flow in the veins, leading to swelling and skin changes but not typically pain associated with exercise. Sore muscles from overexertion (Choice C) and muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems (Choice D) do not present with the characteristic pattern of pain associated with peripheral artery disease.

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