Nursing Elites

1. A pregnant client asks how she can prevent getting Group B Strep. What is the LPN's best response?

• A. You cannot prevent getting Group B Strep; you can only treat it.
• B. You should have your partner wear a condom every time you have intercourse.
• C. You should be extra vigilant about hand-washing, especially in the third trimester.
• D. The Group B Strep vaccine is the only proven way to prevent the disease.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response for the LPN to provide to a pregnant client concerned about preventing Group B Strep is that it cannot be prevented, only treated. Group B Strep is a normal flora found in the vagina, rectum, and intestines of about 25% of women and is not a sexually transmitted disease. Testing for Group B Strep is done in each pregnancy, usually around 35-37 weeks. If a woman tests positive, antibiotics are administered during labor to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby. Choice A is the correct answer as Group B Strep cannot be prevented but only treated. Choice B is incorrect; condom use does not prevent Group B Strep. Choice C is not the best response as hand-washing is important for general hygiene but does not specifically prevent Group B Strep. Choice D is incorrect as there is no vaccine available to prevent Group B Strep.

2. A client is taking phenelzine (Nardil), and their spouse would like to bring lunch from home. Which of the following is most appropriate for the client to eat?

• A. a banana
• B. grapefruit
• C. a salami sandwich
• D. avocado slices

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is grapefruit. Clients taking MAO Inhibitors like phenelzine (Nardil) should avoid foods rich in tyramine to prevent hypertensive crisis. Grapefruit is a suitable choice as it is not high in tyramine. Bananas, avocados, and salami are foods that should be avoided due to their tyramine content, which can interact adversely with MAO Inhibitors. Therefore, choosing grapefruit is the safest option for the client.

3. What causes an older female client's hair to turn gray?

• A. ''A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.''
• B. ''The number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases in the normal aging process.''
• C. ''The skin on the scalp becomes thin, causing moisture to escape.''
• D. ''It is caused by hereditary factors.''

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.' Graying hair in older adults is primarily due to a decrease in the number of melanocytes responsible for providing pigment and hair color. This reduction in melanin production leads to gray hair. The other choices are incorrect. While it is true that the skin becomes thinner with aging and the number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases, these changes are not directly related to graying hair. Additionally, hereditary factors can influence when graying starts, but they do not cause the graying of hair itself.

4. A woman who delivered a healthy newborn 6 hours earlier complains of discomfort at the episiotomy site. Which action by the nurse is the most appropriate?

• A. Administering an intravenous (IV) opioid analgesic
• B. Assisting the woman in taking a warm sitz bath
• C. Applying an ice pack to the perineum
• D. Contacting the registered nurse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Applying an ice pack to the perineum is the most appropriate action in this scenario. Ice causes vasoconstriction, providing relief by numbing the area and preventing edema. It is typically used within the first 12 to 24 hours after birth. Assisting the woman in taking a warm sitz bath is more suitable after 24 hours as warm water can be soothing. Administering an IV opioid analgesic is excessive; an anesthetic spray is more appropriate for surface discomfort. Contacting the registered nurse is unnecessary as applying an ice pack is within the nurse's scope and can effectively address the discomfort without escalation.

5. When assessing a client with deep pitting edema, with the indentation remaining for a short time and visible leg swelling, how should a nurse document this finding?

• A. 1+ edema
• B. 2+ edema
• C. 3+ edema
• D. 4+ edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 3+ edema. When assessing for edema, the nurse presses thumbs against the ankle malleolus or the tibia. If the skin retains an indentation, it indicates pitting edema. The grading scale for pitting edema includes: 1+ for mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible leg swelling, 2+ for moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly, 3+ for deep pitting with an indentation remaining briefly and visible leg swelling, and 4+ for very deep pitting with a long-lasting indentation and significant leg swelling. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately represent the severity of the edema described in the scenario.

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