Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to screen a client's vision with the use of a Snellen chart. The nurse uses which technique?

• A. Tests the right eye, then tests the left eye, and finally tests both eyes together
• B. Assesses both eyes together, then assesses the right and left eyes separately
• C. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the largest line on the chart
• D. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the line that can be read 200 feet away by someone with unimpaired vision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To test visual acuity with the use of a Snellen chart, the nurse places the chart in a well-lit spot at the client's eye level, with the client positioned exactly 20 feet from the chart. The client shields one eye at a time with an opaque card during the test. After testing each eye separately, both eyes are assessed together. The client is asked to read the smallest line of letters visible and encouraged to read the next smallest line as well. Therefore, option A is correct as it describes the correct technique of testing one eye at a time before assessing both eyes together. Option B is incorrect as it assesses both eyes together first, which is not the standard procedure. Options C and D are incorrect as they suggest standing 40 feet from the chart, which contradicts the standard distance of 20 feet for a Snellen chart test.

2. A nurse palpates a client’s radial pulse, noting the rate, rhythm, and force, and concludes that the client’s pulse is normal. Which notation would the nurse make in the client’s record to document the force of the client’s pulse?

• A. 4+
• B. 3+
• C. 2+
• D. 1+

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a pulse, the nurse should note the rhythm, amplitude, and symmetry of pulses and should compare peripheral pulses on the two sides for rate, rhythm, and quality. A 4-point scale may be used to assess the force (amplitude) of the pulse: 4+ for a bounding pulse, 3+ for an increased pulse, 2+ for a normal pulse, and 1+ for a weak pulse. In this case, the nurse would grade the client’s pulse as 2+ based on the description of a normal pulse. Therefore, the correct notation for the force of the client’s pulse is '2+' as it indicates a normal pulse. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent different levels of pulse force that do not align with the description given in the scenario.

3. A nurse is assisting with developing a plan of care for an older client to help maintain an adequate sleep pattern. Which action should the nurse suggest be included in the plan?

• A. Encouraging bedtime reading or listening to music
• B. Encouraging at least one daytime nap
• C. Discouraging the use of a nightlight at bedtime
• D. Discouraging social interaction, particularly at bedtime

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To help maintain an adequate sleep pattern in older clients, it is essential to include activities that promote relaxation and a conducive sleep environment. Encouraging bedtime reading or listening to music can help the client unwind and prepare for sleep. Daytime naps should be discouraged to ensure a better nighttime sleep. Social interaction, especially positive interactions, can be beneficial and should not be discouraged. The use of a nightlight can create a safe and comfortable environment for the client, so it should not be discouraged unless specifically contraindicated.

4. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

5. Which of the following is least appropriate when caring for a stable postpartum client?

• A. Assess the location and height of the fundus.
• B. Conduct a family assessment, including the mother's future plans for returning to work, if applicable.
• C. Monitor the client for bleeding.
• D. Provide perineal care.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Providing perineal care is not the least appropriate when caring for a stable postpartum client. Perineal care is essential for maintaining hygiene and preventing infection after delivery. Assessing the location and height of the fundus helps in monitoring postpartum uterine involution, which is crucial for assessing the recovery progress. Conducting a family assessment, including the mother's future plans for returning to work, is important for understanding the support system available for the mother during the postpartum period. Monitoring the client for bleeding is critical to promptly identify and address any postpartum hemorrhage. Therefore, providing perineal care is the least appropriate option among the choices provided as it is a fundamental aspect of postpartum care.

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