Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to screen a client's vision with the use of a Snellen chart. The nurse uses which technique?

• A. Tests the right eye, then tests the left eye, and finally tests both eyes together
• B. Assesses both eyes together, then assesses the right and left eyes separately
• C. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the largest line on the chart
• D. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the line that can be read 200 feet away by someone with unimpaired vision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To test visual acuity with the use of a Snellen chart, the nurse places the chart in a well-lit spot at the client's eye level, with the client positioned exactly 20 feet from the chart. The client shields one eye at a time with an opaque card during the test. After testing each eye separately, both eyes are assessed together. The client is asked to read the smallest line of letters visible and encouraged to read the next smallest line as well. Therefore, option A is correct as it describes the correct technique of testing one eye at a time before assessing both eyes together. Option B is incorrect as it assesses both eyes together first, which is not the standard procedure. Options C and D are incorrect as they suggest standing 40 feet from the chart, which contradicts the standard distance of 20 feet for a Snellen chart test.

2. A 45-year-old client with type I diabetes is in need of support services upon discharge from a skilled rehabilitation unit. Which of the following services is an example of a skilled support service?

• A. shopping for groceries
• B. house cleaning
• C. transportation to physician's visits
• D. medication instruction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is medication instruction. This is a skilled service that requires specialized knowledge and training to provide proper guidance on medication management for a client with type I diabetes. Grocery shopping, house cleaning, and transportation services are considered unskilled services as they are typically offered by volunteer or fee-for-service agencies and do not require specialized medical expertise. Medication instruction, on the other hand, involves educating the client on how to properly take medications, understand potential side effects, and manage their medication regimen effectively, which necessitates a high level of expertise and training.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Primary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

4. The mother of an adolescent calls the clinic nurse and reports that her daughter wants to have her navel pierced. The mother asks the nurse about the dangers associated with body piercing. The nurse provides which information to the mother?

• A. Infection always occurs when body piercing is done
• B. Hepatitis B is a concern with body piercing
• C. Body piercing is generally harmless as long as it is performed under sterile conditions
• D. It is important to discourage body piercing because of the risk of contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Generally, body piercing is harmless if the procedure is performed under sterile conditions by a qualified person. Some complications that may occur include bleeding, infection, keloid formation, and the development of allergies to metal. It is essential to clean the area at least twice a day (more often for a tongue piercing) to prevent infection. HIV and hepatitis B infections are not typically associated with body piercing; however, they are a possibility with tattooing. Choice A is incorrect because infection does not always occur when body piercing is done. Choice B is not the best answer as hepatitis B is not commonly associated with body piercing. Choice D is incorrect because the risk of contracting HIV is not a significant concern with body piercing if performed under sterile conditions.

5. An allergic reaction is classified as what type of pharmacological effect?

• A. a therapeutic effect
• B. a side effect
• C. an adverse effect
• D. an incompatibility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An allergic reaction is classified as an adverse effect because it is an unintended response to a medication that requires treatment. A side effect is an undesired but somewhat expected reaction to a drug that does not necessarily need intervention. Incompatibility refers to an unsuitable combination of substances that leads to an adverse effect. A therapeutic effect is the desired and intended outcome of a medication.

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