Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to screen a client's vision with the use of a Snellen chart. The nurse uses which technique?

• A. Tests the right eye, then tests the left eye, and finally tests both eyes together
• B. Assesses both eyes together, then assesses the right and left eyes separately
• C. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the largest line on the chart
• D. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the line that can be read 200 feet away by someone with unimpaired vision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To test visual acuity with the use of a Snellen chart, the nurse places the chart in a well-lit spot at the client's eye level, with the client positioned exactly 20 feet from the chart. The client shields one eye at a time with an opaque card during the test. After testing each eye separately, both eyes are assessed together. The client is asked to read the smallest line of letters visible and encouraged to read the next smallest line as well. Therefore, option A is correct as it describes the correct technique of testing one eye at a time before assessing both eyes together. Option B is incorrect as it assesses both eyes together first, which is not the standard procedure. Options C and D are incorrect as they suggest standing 40 feet from the chart, which contradicts the standard distance of 20 feet for a Snellen chart test.

2. While a client is on total parenteral nutrition, which of the following values should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. calcium
• B. magnesium
• C. glucose
• D. cholesterol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Glucose should be monitored closely when a client is on total parenteral nutrition due to the high glucose concentration in the solutions. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Calcium and magnesium are usually monitored to assess electrolyte imbalances, while cholesterol levels are not directly impacted by total parenteral nutrition. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are not the primary values that need close monitoring during total parenteral nutrition.

3. A pregnant client asks how she can prevent getting Group B Strep. What is the LPN's best response?

• A. You cannot prevent getting Group B Strep; you can only treat it.
• B. You should have your partner wear a condom every time you have intercourse.
• C. You should be extra vigilant about hand-washing, especially in the third trimester.
• D. The Group B Strep vaccine is the only proven way to prevent the disease.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response for the LPN to provide to a pregnant client concerned about preventing Group B Strep is that it cannot be prevented, only treated. Group B Strep is a normal flora found in the vagina, rectum, and intestines of about 25% of women and is not a sexually transmitted disease. Testing for Group B Strep is done in each pregnancy, usually around 35-37 weeks. If a woman tests positive, antibiotics are administered during labor to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby. Choice A is the correct answer as Group B Strep cannot be prevented but only treated. Choice B is incorrect; condom use does not prevent Group B Strep. Choice C is not the best response as hand-washing is important for general hygiene but does not specifically prevent Group B Strep. Choice D is incorrect as there is no vaccine available to prevent Group B Strep.

4. A healthcare professional reviewing the health care record of a client notes documentation of grade 4 muscle strength. The healthcare professional understands that this indicates:

• A. Full ROM with gravity
• B. Full ROM against gravity with full resistance
• C. Full ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion)
• D. Full ROM against gravity with some resistance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Muscle strength is graded on a scale of 0 to 5. A grade of 5 indicates normal strength and is described as full ROM against gravity with full resistance. Grade 4 indicates good strength and full ROM against gravity with some resistance. Grade 3 indicates fair strength and full ROM with gravity. Grade 2 indicates poor strength and full ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion). Grade 1 indicates trace strength and slight contraction. Grade 0 indicates zero strength and no contraction. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Full ROM against gravity with some resistance.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the description of muscle strength associated with a grade of 4.

5. How should a nurse listen to the breath sounds of a client?

• A. Ask the client to lie prone.
• B. Ask the client to breathe in and out through the nose.
• C. Hold the bell of the stethoscope lightly against the chest.
• D. Listen for at least one full respiration in each location on the chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To best listen to breath sounds, the nurse should have the client sit, leaning slightly forward, with arms resting comfortably across the lap. The client should be instructed to breathe through the mouth a little deeper than usual, but to stop if feeling dizzy. The nurse should hold the flat diaphragm end piece of the stethoscope firmly against the client's chest wall. It is crucial to listen for at least one full respiration in each location on the chest to assess breath sounds accurately. Side-to-side comparison is essential in breath sound assessment. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the correct procedure for listening to breath sounds.

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