NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. During a genital examination of a male client, a nurse notices wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum. What should the nurse do based on this finding?
- A. Documents the normal finding
- B. Checks for penile discharge, as this indicates infection
- C. Palpates for a mass in the scrotum, as wrinkling suggests the presence of one
- D. Obtains additional subjective data from the client, focusing on the scrotal abnormality
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The penile skin typically appears wrinkled and hairless, without lesions, during a normal examination. Also, the scrotal skin naturally has a wrinkled appearance known as rugae. It is common for the left half of the scrotum to be positioned lower than the right, indicating normal asymmetry. Given these normal variations, the nurse should document the finding of wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum. Checking for penile discharge or palpating for a mass in the scrotum is not indicated based on the presence of wrinkled skin, as this is a normal finding. Obtaining additional subjective data focusing on a scrotal abnormality is unnecessary since the wrinkled appearance is typical.
2. Which of the following actions should the LPN perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order? Select all that apply.
- A. plug the patient to the ECG Monitor
- B. Administer the medication over at least 5 minutes.
- C. Monitor respirations during administration.
- D. Monitor the client's pulse for 1 minute prior to administration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct actions for the LPN to perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order are to monitor ECG rhythm throughout administration and monitor the client's pulse for 1 minute prior to administration. These actions are crucial as digoxin affects the heart's electrical activity, and it should not be administered if the client's pulse is less than 60 bpm. Monitoring respirations and blood pressure are not directly associated with digoxin administration. Administering IV medications is typically outside the LPN's scope of practice.
3. How often should the nurse change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions?
- A. every 24 hours
- B. every 36 hours
- C. every 48 hours
- D. every 72 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'every 24 hours.' Changing the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours is crucial due to the high risk of bacterial growth. Bacterial contamination can lead to serious infections in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals between tubing changes increases the risk of bacterial contamination and infection, compromising patient safety. It is essential to maintain a strict 24-hour schedule to minimize the risk of complications associated with bacterial contamination.
4. The teaching plan for a postpartum client who is about to be discharged should include which of the following instructions?
- A. "It is normal for your breasts to be tender. You should call the physician if you also have redness and fatigue."?
- B. "Because your baby was delivered vaginally, you might have to urinate more frequently."?
- C. "It is normal to run a low-grade temperature for a few days. If it is higher than 100�F, call your physician."?
- D. "Be sure to call your physician if your vaginal discharge becomes bright red."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the postpartum client to call the physician if their vaginal discharge becomes bright red. The vaginal discharge after birth is called lochia, and a return to red or containing clots could indicate impending hemorrhage or infection, necessitating notification of the physician. Choice A is incorrect because although some tenderness may be expected, redness and fatigue are clinical manifestations of mastitis, not normal postpartum changes. Choice B is also incorrect as increased frequency of urination after vaginal delivery could indicate a urinary tract infection, not a normal postpartum change. Choice C is incorrect because running a low-grade temperature for a few days is not expected postpartum; an elevated temperature above 100�F should be reported to the physician as it could indicate infection.
5. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:
- A. administer both medications simultaneously
- B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them
- C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug
- D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them. Ampicillin has a pH of 8-10, while gentamicin has a pH of 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent any potential interactions. Option A is incorrect because administering both medications simultaneously can lead to incompatibility issues. Option C is incorrect because the nurse should already be aware of the correct administration sequence and not need to consult the physician or pharmacy each time. Option D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow down the treatment of the client's infection, which is not ideal in this scenario.
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