Nursing Elites

1. When caring for an elderly client and providing education, which of the following would be the least appropriate for the nurse to do?

• A. The nurse speaks loudly.
• B. The nurse allows additional time after each instruction to allow the client to process.
• C. The nurse provides supplemental written resources.
• D. The nurse breaks up the education into multiple shorter sessions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Speaking loudly is inappropriate when caring for an elderly client. It is essential to assess the client for a hearing impairment and provide appropriate assistance if needed. Elderly clients may require more time to process information due to slower reaction times, benefit from shorter sessions as they fatigue easily, and can absorb supplemental written resources effectively. Therefore, speaking loudly may not be conducive to effective communication and may not cater to the specific needs of the elderly client, unlike the other options provided.

2. When testing the function of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, which parameter does a nurse check to determine their function?

• A. Tongue symmetry
• B. Eye movements
• C. Facial symmetry
• D. Corneal reflex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eye movements. When assessing the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, evaluating eye movements is crucial. This assessment includes checking the pupils for size, regularity, equality, light reactions, accommodation, and extraocular movements in various gaze positions. Tongue symmetry is primarily used to evaluate cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve) function. Facial symmetry is a key indicator of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) function. The corneal reflex assesses sensory afferents in cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) and motor efferents in cranial nerve VII (facial nerve).

3. Which of the following vaccines contains a live virus?

• A. varicella
• B. IPV
• C. DTaP
• D. hepatitis B

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is varicella. Varicella vaccine contains a live, weakened form of the varicella-zoster virus. Choice B, IPV (inactivated poliovirus vaccine), is an inactivated vaccine, not a live virus vaccine. Choices C and D, DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis vaccine) and hepatitis B vaccine, respectively, do not contain live viruses. Varicella is the only live virus vaccine among the options.

4. The LPN has been asked to help a client taking Risperdal with activities of daily living in the morning. Which of these tasks is most likely to be potentially impacted by this medication?

• A. eating breakfast
• B. drinking fluids
• C. getting out of bed to use the bathroom
• D. brushing teeth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'getting out of bed to use the bathroom.' Risperdal can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a drop in blood pressure when changing positions from lying down to standing up. This effect increases the risk of falls, emphasizing the need to assist the client with this task to prevent potential harm. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be directly impacted by the medication, unlike the significant risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with changing positions.

5. Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?

• A. rickets
• B. marasmus
• C. kwashiorkor
• D. scurvy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Scurvy is indeed associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C. Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by weakness, anemia, gum disease, and skin hemorrhages. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency, marasmus is due to severe malnutrition leading to wasting, and kwashiorkor is a form of severe protein-energy malnutrition.

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