Nursing Elites

1. When caring for an elderly client and providing education, which of the following would be the least appropriate for the nurse to do?

• A. The nurse speaks loudly.
• B. The nurse allows additional time after each instruction to allow the client to process.
• C. The nurse provides supplemental written resources.
• D. The nurse breaks up the education into multiple shorter sessions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Speaking loudly is inappropriate when caring for an elderly client. It is essential to assess the client for a hearing impairment and provide appropriate assistance if needed. Elderly clients may require more time to process information due to slower reaction times, benefit from shorter sessions as they fatigue easily, and can absorb supplemental written resources effectively. Therefore, speaking loudly may not be conducive to effective communication and may not cater to the specific needs of the elderly client, unlike the other options provided.

2. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?

• A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
• B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
• C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
• D. The test results are normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.

3. A nurse is determining the fetal heart rate (FHR) and places the fetoscope on the mother's abdomen to count the FHR. The nurse simultaneously palpates the mother's radial pulse and notes that it is synchronized with the sounds heard through the fetoscope. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Count the FHR for 60 seconds, ensuring that it is synchronized consistently with the mother's radial pulse.
• B. Move the fetoscope to another area on the mother's abdomen to locate the fetal heart.
• C. Ask the mother to lie still while both the FHR and the radial pulse rate are counted.
• D. Count the FHR for 30 seconds and then count the radial pulse rate of the mother for 30 seconds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When auscultating the fetal heart rate, the nurse would place the fetoscope on the maternal abdomen, over the fetal back. The nurse would then palpate the mother's radial pulse. If her pulse is synchronized with the sounds from the fetoscope, the nurse would move the fetoscope to another area on the mother's abdomen to locate the FHR. The nurse needs to be sure that the FHR is what is actually being heard. Other sounds that may be heard are the funic sound (blood flowing through the umbilical cord) and the uterine sound (blood flowing through the uterine vessels). The funic sound is synchronized with the FHR; the uterine sound is synchronized with the mother's pulse. Therefore, moving the fetoscope to a different area will help in accurately locating and counting the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because counting for 60 seconds without changing the position may not address the issue of accurately locating the FHR. Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the need to reposition the fetoscope to locate the fetal heart. Choice D is incorrect because counting the FHR and the radial pulse rate separately may not help in differentiating the two sounds.

4. A client, age 28, is 8 1/2 months pregnant. She is most likely to display which normal skin-color variation?

• A. vitiligo
• B. erythema
• C. cyanosis
• D. chloasma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is described as tan-to-brown patches on the face. This hyperpigmentation results from hormonal changes during pregnancy. Vitiligo is characterized by depigmented patches, erythema is redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, and cyanosis is a bluish discoloration due to poor circulation or lack of oxygen, none of which are typical skin-color variations during pregnancy. Therefore, in a pregnant client, the most likely normal skin-color variation to be displayed is chloasma.

5. A patient reports, "I tore 3 of my 4 Rotator cuff muscles in the past."? Which of the following muscles cannot be considered as possibly being torn?

• A. Teres minor
• B. Teres major
• C. Supraspinatus
• D. Infraspinatus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Teres major. The Rotator Cuff consists of Teres Minor, Infraspinatus, Supraspinatus, and Subscapularis muscles, not Teres major. Teres major is not part of the rotator cuff, so it cannot be considered as possibly being torn. The other choices, Teres minor, Supraspinatus, and Infraspinatus, are all part of the Rotator Cuff and could potentially be torn in this patient's case.

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