Nursing Elites

1. What effect can medication bound to protein have?

• A. reduced drug availability
• B. limited distribution of the drug to receptor sites
• C. less availability to produce desired medicinal effects
• D. decreased metabolism of the drug by the liver

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Medication bound to protein leads to less availability to produce desired medicinal effects because only unbound drugs can interact with active receptor sites. If a drug is bound to protein, it cannot bind with a receptor site, reducing its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because binding to protein reduces drug availability. Choice B is incorrect because distribution to receptor sites is ineffective if the drug is bound to protein. Choice D is incorrect because metabolism does not occur until the drug is removed from the protein molecule by the liver, allowing the protein to return to circulation.

2. The nurse is caring for a female client who has recently been diagnosed with cancer and will soon begin chemotherapy. Which of these statements would require additional follow-up and education?

• A. I will be most susceptible to an infection between 7 and 12 days after chemotherapy.
• B. I should try to get my annual teeth cleaning in before beginning chemotherapy.
• C. I should wait until all my hair falls out to purchase a wig.
• D. I should try to drink 8-10 glasses of water a day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: This client is at risk for altered body image due to chemotherapy-induced hair loss. A wig can assist in coping with this change. It is advisable for the client to shop for a wig before hair loss occurs to better match color and style. Waiting until all hair falls out may lead to stress and limited options in finding a suitable wig. Choices A, B, and D are accurate. Understanding the timing of susceptibility to infection, maintaining oral health before chemotherapy, and staying hydrated are important aspects of care during chemotherapy. Therefore, the statement 'I should wait until all my hair falls out to purchase a wig' requires additional follow-up and education.

3. When determining a fetal heart rate (FHR) and noting accelerations from the baseline rate when the fetus is moving, a nurse interprets this finding as:

• A. A reassuring sign
• B. An indication of the need to contact the physician
• C. An indication of fetal distress
• D. A nonreassuring sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse notes accelerations from the baseline rate of the fetal heart rate, particularly when they occur with fetal movement, it is considered a reassuring sign. This indicates a healthy response to fetal activity. Reassuring signs in FHR monitoring include an average rate between 120 and 160 beats/min at term, a regular rhythm with slight fluctuations, accelerations from the baseline rate (often associated with fetal movement), and the absence of decreases from the baseline rate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because accelerations in FHR with fetal movement are not indicative of the need to contact the physician, fetal distress, or a nonreassuring sign. These signs would typically be associated with other abnormal FHR patterns that would warrant further assessment and intervention.

4. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?

• A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
• B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
• C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
• D. The test results are normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.

5. In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?

• A. measles, polio, pertussis, hepatitis B
• B. diphtheria, pertussis, polio, tetanus
• C. rubella, polio, pertussis, hepatitis A
• D. measles, mumps, rubella, polio

Correct answer: B

Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received vaccines for diphtheria, pertussis, polio, and tetanus (DTaP and IPV). The correct answer is B as it includes these vaccines that are typically administered in the first year of life. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccination usually begins at 12 months of age but is not expected to be completed by this time. Choices A and C are incorrect as they include diseases that are not part of the routine immunization schedule for a 12-month-old child.

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