Nursing Elites

1. What effect can medication bound to protein have?

• A. reduced drug availability
• B. limited distribution of the drug to receptor sites
• C. less availability to produce desired medicinal effects
• D. decreased metabolism of the drug by the liver

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Medication bound to protein leads to less availability to produce desired medicinal effects because only unbound drugs can interact with active receptor sites. If a drug is bound to protein, it cannot bind with a receptor site, reducing its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because binding to protein reduces drug availability. Choice B is incorrect because distribution to receptor sites is ineffective if the drug is bound to protein. Choice D is incorrect because metabolism does not occur until the drug is removed from the protein molecule by the liver, allowing the protein to return to circulation.

2. Intramuscular (IM) phytonadione (vitamin K) 0.5 mg is prescribed for a newborn. After the medication is prepared, in which anatomic site does the nurse administer it?

• A. Rectus femoris muscle
• B. Deltoid muscle
• C. Gluteal muscle
• D. Vastus lateralis muscle

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vitamin K is administered to newborn infants to help prevent hemorrhagic disease. The best site for intramuscular injection in infants is the vastus lateralis muscle. This site is preferred due to its location away from the sciatic nerve, femoral artery, and vein, reducing the risk of complications. The rectus femoris muscle may be used if necessary; however, it is less favorable than the vastus lateralis due to its proximity to vital structures, making injections there more hazardous. The deltoid muscle is not typically used for IM injections in newborns. The gluteal muscles should be avoided until the child has been walking for at least a year, as they are poorly developed and close to the sciatic nerve.

3. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

4. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?

• A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
• B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
• C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
• D. The test results are normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.

5. Which of the following methods of contraception is able to reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs?

• A. intrauterine device (IUD)
• B. Norplant
• C. oral contraceptives
• D. vaginal sponge

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the vaginal sponge. The vaginal sponge, when used with foam or jelly contraception, acts as a barrier method that can reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs, in addition to preventing pregnancy. In contrast, IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives are effective in preventing pregnancy but do not provide protection against the transmission of HIV and STDs. IUDs prevent pregnancy by affecting sperm movement and survival, Norplant releases hormones to prevent ovulation, and oral contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation. However, these methods do not create a physical barrier against HIV and STD transmission. It is important to counsel clients using methods like IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives to also use chemical or barrier contraceptives to lower the risk of HIV or STD transmission.

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