Nursing Elites

1. What is one of the main goals of Healthy People 2010?

• A. reduction of health care costs
• B. elimination of health disparities
• C. investigation of substance abuse
• D. determination of an acceptable morbidity rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main goal of Healthy People 2010 is the elimination of health disparities among the U.S. population. This initiative outlines specific objectives to improve the overall health of Americans by addressing disparities in health outcomes. Choice A, reduction of health care costs, is not the primary goal of Healthy People 2010, although it may be a beneficial outcome. Choice C, investigation of substance abuse, is not a main goal of Healthy People 2010; while substance abuse may be a factor in health disparities, the primary focus is on broader disparities. Choice D, determination of an acceptable morbidity rate, is not the main focus of Healthy People 2010; instead, it aims to address health disparities in different population groups.

2. The mother of a newborn who was circumcised before discharge from the hospital calls the nurse at the pediatrician's office and tells the nurse that she is concerned because she has noticed a yellow crust over the circumcision site. The nurse provides which information to the mother?

• A. That it could indicate a sign of an infection and the infant's temperature should be checked every 2 hours
• B. That the crust is to be expected as a normal part of healing
• C. To bring the infant to the pediatrician's office to be checked
• D. To remove the crust, using a warm, wet face cloth and a mild soap

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After circumcision, a yellow crust may form over the circumcision site, which is a normal part of healing and should not be removed. The mother should be reassured that this crust is to be expected. Yellow crusting or discharge is not indicative of an infection, and there is no need to notify the pediatrician. Checking the infant's temperature every 2 hours is unnecessary and may cause unnecessary alarm to the mother.

3. A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?

• A. Near vision
• B. Color vision
• C. Distant vision
• D. Peripheral vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.

4. A healthcare professional reviewing the health care record of a client notes documentation of grade 4 muscle strength. The healthcare professional understands that this indicates:

• A. Full ROM with gravity
• B. Full ROM against gravity with full resistance
• C. Full ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion)
• D. Full ROM against gravity with some resistance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Muscle strength is graded on a scale of 0 to 5. A grade of 5 indicates normal strength and is described as full ROM against gravity with full resistance. Grade 4 indicates good strength and full ROM against gravity with some resistance. Grade 3 indicates fair strength and full ROM with gravity. Grade 2 indicates poor strength and full ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion). Grade 1 indicates trace strength and slight contraction. Grade 0 indicates zero strength and no contraction. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Full ROM against gravity with some resistance.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the description of muscle strength associated with a grade of 4.

5. A preschooler has successfully completed the test item 'counts 5 blocks' on the Denver II test. This pass is evidence of which of the following developmental concepts?

• A. centration
• B. causality
• C. nonreversibility
• D. conservation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability of a preschooler to move five blocks to a piece of paper and state there are five blocks on the paper is evidence that the preschooler has the ability of conservation. This concept refers to the fact that the quantity of something doesn't change just because the shape, contour, and so on has changed. Five blocks are still five blocks, whether they are lying beside the paper, stacked on the paper, or moved to the paper. Centration is the ability to concentrate on one feature of a situation while neglecting all other aspects. Causality is based on the sequence of events, one event ordinarily following another. Non-reversibility refers to the inability of preschoolers to reverse their operations. They are only able to think forward, not retrace or reverse their thought processes.

Similar Questions