Nursing Elites

1. While taking the vital signs of a pregnant client admitted to the labor unit, a nurse notes a temperature of 100.6�F, pulse rate of 100 beats/min, and respirations of 24 breaths/min. What is the most appropriate nursing action based on these findings?

• A. Notify the registered nurse of the findings.
• B. Document the findings in the client's medical record.
• C. Recheck the vital signs in 1 hour.
• D. Continue collecting subjective and objective data.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the registered nurse of the findings. In a pregnant client, the normal temperature range is 98�F to 99.6�F, with a pulse rate of 60 to 90 beats/min and respirations of 12 to 20 breaths/min. A temperature of 100.4�F or higher, along with an increased pulse rate and faster respirations, suggests a possible infection. Immediate notification of the registered nurse is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. While documenting the findings is essential, the priority lies in promptly escalating abnormal vital signs for assessment and management. Rechecking vital signs in 1 hour may delay necessary interventions for a deteriorating condition. Continuing to collect data is relevant but should not delay informing the registered nurse when abnormal vital signs are present.

2. A nurse is participating in a planning conference to improve dietary measures for an older client experiencing dysphagia. Which action should the nurse suggest including in the plan of care?

• A. Monitoring the client during meals to ensure that food is swallowed
• B. Encouraging the client to feed themselves
• C. Consulting with the physician regarding feeding through an enteral tube
• D. Ensuring that the diet consists of both solids and liquids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For clients with dysphagia, ensuring successful swallowing of food and preventing aspiration is crucial. Therefore, the nurse should suggest monitoring the client closely during meals to provide assistance as needed. While a balanced diet is important, special considerations like adding thickeners for liquids may be required for dysphagia clients. Consulting with a physician about enteral tube feeding should be based on the severity of the condition, making it a premature step without clear indications. Encouraging self-feeding may not be appropriate for dysphagia clients who require close monitoring and assistance, as it could increase the risk of complications.

3. The LPN is caring for a client newly diagnosed with HIV. Which statement made by the client regarding antiretroviral therapy (ART) would require correction from the nurse?

• A. "If I start ART and use condoms, I'm less likely to transmit HIV to my partner."?
• B. "I can still use ART even though I am Hepatitis C positive."?
• C. "I will need to be on ART indefinitely."?
• D. "I know I will need to come back for blood draws so that I can begin ART when my CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the statement, "I know I will need to come back for blood draws so that I can begin ART when my CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3."? This statement would require correction from the nurse because initiating ART when the CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not supported by guidelines. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends making treatment a priority for those with a CD4 count of ?350 cells/mm3, as early intervention can help delay disease progression. Therefore, waiting for a CD4 count of over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not in line with current recommendations. Choice A is correct, as studies have shown that using condoms along with ART can significantly reduce the risk of HIV transmission to sexual partners. Choice B is also correct because being Hepatitis C positive does not contraindicate the use of ART. Choice C is correct as well, as ART is typically needed indefinitely to maintain viral suppression and manage HIV. Therefore, the only statement that would require correction is Choice D.

4. A client, age 28, is 8 1/2 months pregnant. She is most likely to display which normal skin-color variation?

• A. vitiligo
• B. erythema
• C. cyanosis
• D. chloasma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is described as tan-to-brown patches on the face. This hyperpigmentation results from hormonal changes during pregnancy. Vitiligo is characterized by depigmented patches, erythema is redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, and cyanosis is a bluish discoloration due to poor circulation or lack of oxygen, none of which are typical skin-color variations during pregnancy. Therefore, in a pregnant client, the most likely normal skin-color variation to be displayed is chloasma.

5. A nurse assisting with data collection is preparing to assess the optic nerve. The nurse performs this examination by using which technique?

• A. Assessing visual acuity
• B. Inspecting the eyelids for ptosis
• C. Assessing pupil constriction
• D. Assessing ocular movements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique to assess the optic nerve is by testing visual acuity and visual fields through confrontation. Visual acuity involves assessing the clarity of vision, which directly correlates with the function of the optic nerve. Inspecting the eyelids for ptosis is unrelated to optic nerve assessment. Assessing pupil constriction is more related to the assessment of cranial nerves controlling eye movements, particularly the oculomotor nerve. Assessing ocular movements is related to testing the abducens, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves, not specifically the optic nerve.

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