Nursing Elites

1. While taking the vital signs of a pregnant client admitted to the labor unit, a nurse notes a temperature of 100.6�F, pulse rate of 100 beats/min, and respirations of 24 breaths/min. What is the most appropriate nursing action based on these findings?

• A. Notify the registered nurse of the findings.
• B. Document the findings in the client's medical record.
• C. Recheck the vital signs in 1 hour.
• D. Continue collecting subjective and objective data.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the registered nurse of the findings. In a pregnant client, the normal temperature range is 98�F to 99.6�F, with a pulse rate of 60 to 90 beats/min and respirations of 12 to 20 breaths/min. A temperature of 100.4�F or higher, along with an increased pulse rate and faster respirations, suggests a possible infection. Immediate notification of the registered nurse is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. While documenting the findings is essential, the priority lies in promptly escalating abnormal vital signs for assessment and management. Rechecking vital signs in 1 hour may delay necessary interventions for a deteriorating condition. Continuing to collect data is relevant but should not delay informing the registered nurse when abnormal vital signs are present.

2. A nurse is preparing to test cranial nerve I. Which item does the nurse obtain to test this nerve?

• A. Coffee
• B. A tuning fork
• C. A wisp of cotton
• D. An ophthalmoscope

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To assess the function of cranial nerve I (olfactory nerve), the nurse uses a wisp of cotton to test the sense of smell in a client who reports loss of smell. The nurse assesses the patency of the client's nostrils by occluding one nostril at a time and asking the client to sniff. Next, with the client's eyes closed, the nurse occludes one nostril and presents a non-noxious aromatic substance such as coffee, toothpaste, orange, vanilla, soap, or peppermint. Choice A, 'Coffee,' is incorrect because it is used to present non-noxious aromatic substances to assess cranial nerve I. Choice B, 'A tuning fork,' is used to assess the function of cranial nerve VIII (acoustic nerve). Choice D, 'An ophthalmoscope,' is used to assess the internal structures of the eye, not cranial nerve I.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to perform a Rinne test on a client who complains of hearing loss. In which area does the healthcare provider first place an activated tuning fork?

• A. On the client's teeth
• B. On the client's forehead
• C. On the client's mastoid bone
• D. On the midline of the client's skull

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Rinne test, the base of an activated tuning fork is held first against the mastoid bone, behind the ear, and then in front of the ear canal (0.5 to 2 inches). When the client no longer perceives the sound behind the ear, the fork is moved in front of the ear canal until the client indicates that the sound can no longer be heard. The client reports whether the sound from the tuning fork is louder behind the ear (on the mastoid bone) or in front of the ear canal. Placing the tuning fork on the teeth (Choice A), forehead (Choice B), or the midline of the skull (Choice D) is not part of the Rinne test procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is to first place the activated tuning fork on the client's mastoid bone.

4. A nurse is preparing to screen a client's vision with the use of a Snellen chart. The nurse uses which technique?

• A. Tests the right eye, then tests the left eye, and finally tests both eyes together
• B. Assesses both eyes together, then assesses the right and left eyes separately
• C. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the largest line on the chart
• D. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the line that can be read 200 feet away by someone with unimpaired vision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To test visual acuity with the use of a Snellen chart, the nurse places the chart in a well-lit spot at the client's eye level, with the client positioned exactly 20 feet from the chart. The client shields one eye at a time with an opaque card during the test. After testing each eye separately, both eyes are assessed together. The client is asked to read the smallest line of letters visible and encouraged to read the next smallest line as well. Therefore, option A is correct as it describes the correct technique of testing one eye at a time before assessing both eyes together. Option B is incorrect as it assesses both eyes together first, which is not the standard procedure. Options C and D are incorrect as they suggest standing 40 feet from the chart, which contradicts the standard distance of 20 feet for a Snellen chart test.

5. A nurse assisting with data collection notes that the client exhibits rapid, involuntary oscillating movements of the eyeball when looking at the nurse. The nurse documents this finding using which term?

• A. Ptosis
• B. Nystagmus
• C. Scleral icterus
• D. Exophthalmos

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse observes rapid, involuntary oscillating movements of the eyeball in a client, this is described as nystagmus. Nystagmus appears as a fine oscillating movement, most notable around the iris. It is important to assess for nystagmus when evaluating ocular muscle weakness. Mild nystagmus at extreme lateral gaze is considered normal; nystagmus in any other position is not. Ptosis refers to a drooping of the eyelid, not rapid eye movements. Scleral icterus is the yellowing of the sclera up to the cornea, indicating jaundice, not related to eye movements. Exophthalmos is a noticeable protrusion of the eyeball, typically seen in hyperthyroidism, not associated with rapid oscillating eye movements.

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