Nursing Elites

1. While taking the vital signs of a pregnant client admitted to the labor unit, a nurse notes a temperature of 100.6�F, pulse rate of 100 beats/min, and respirations of 24 breaths/min. What is the most appropriate nursing action based on these findings?

• A. Notify the registered nurse of the findings.
• B. Document the findings in the client's medical record.
• C. Recheck the vital signs in 1 hour.
• D. Continue collecting subjective and objective data.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the registered nurse of the findings. In a pregnant client, the normal temperature range is 98�F to 99.6�F, with a pulse rate of 60 to 90 beats/min and respirations of 12 to 20 breaths/min. A temperature of 100.4�F or higher, along with an increased pulse rate and faster respirations, suggests a possible infection. Immediate notification of the registered nurse is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. While documenting the findings is essential, the priority lies in promptly escalating abnormal vital signs for assessment and management. Rechecking vital signs in 1 hour may delay necessary interventions for a deteriorating condition. Continuing to collect data is relevant but should not delay informing the registered nurse when abnormal vital signs are present.

2. Health promotion activities are designed to help clients:

• A. reduce the risk of illness
• B. maintain maximal function
• C. promote healthy habits related to healthcare
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Health promotion activities encompass a broad range of interventions aimed at enhancing overall well-being. These activities not only focus on reducing the risk of illness but also on maintaining maximal function and promoting healthy habits related to healthcare. Therefore, the correct answer is 'all of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are all integral components of health promotion strategies, emphasizing the multidimensional approach required to support clients in achieving optimal health outcomes.

3. A paraplegic client is in the hospital to be treated for an electrolyte imbalance. Which level of care is the client currently receiving?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. The client is currently receiving secondary prevention care. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease, prompt intervention, and health maintenance for clients experiencing health problems. In this case, the electrolyte imbalance is a health problem that requires treatment to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because primary prevention is focused on health promotion and specific protections against illness before it occurs, tertiary prevention is aimed at helping rehabilitate clients after the illness is diagnosed and treated, and health promotion is a broader concept that includes activities aimed at improving overall health and well-being rather than targeting a specific health problem like an electrolyte imbalance.

4. When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, which information should a nurse recognize as a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy?

• A. family history of stroke
• B. ovaries removed before age 45
• C. frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats
• D. unexplained vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When considering hormone replacement therapy for a menopausal woman, unexplained vaginal bleeding should be recognized as a contraindication. This is because it could be indicative of a serious underlying condition that needs investigation before initiating hormone therapy. A family history of stroke, by itself, is not a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy, unless the woman herself has a history of stroke or blood-clotting events. Ovaries removed before age 45 may actually increase the likelihood of needing hormone replacement therapy due to early menopause. Frequent hot flashes and night sweats, on the other hand, are symptoms that can be relieved by hormone replacement therapy, making them a potential indication rather than a contraindication.

5. How often should the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions be changed?

• A. every 24 hours
• B. every 36 hours
• C. every 48 hours
• D. every 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours. This frequency is necessary due to the high risk of bacterial growth associated with TPN solutions. Changing the tubing every 24 hours helps prevent contamination and bloodstream infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals increases the risk of introducing harmful bacteria into the patient's system, leading to potentially severe complications.

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