Nursing Elites

1. The teaching plan for gay or lesbian parents who want to disclose their homosexuality to their children should include all of the following instructions except:

• A. disclose the information before the child knows or suspects.
• B. be comfortable with your sexual preference first.
• C. have the discussion in a quiet place where interruptions are unlikely.
• D. explain how your relationship with the child changes because of the discussion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to explain how your relationship with the child changes because of the discussion. Children of gay and lesbian parents should be reassured that their relationship with their parent will not change due to the disclosure. Choices A, B, and C are all important aspects of the disclosure process. It is crucial to disclose the information before the child knows or suspects, be comfortable with your sexual preference first, and have the discussion in a quiet place to ensure a safe and open environment for communication. Explaining how the relationship with the child changes might create unnecessary anxiety or confusion. Children may have different reactions based on their age, understanding, and environment. Therefore, it is essential to maintain a sense of stability and security in the parent-child relationship while addressing any questions or concerns that may arise.

2. While assisting with data collection regarding the neurological system, the nurse asks the client to puff out both cheeks. Which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?

• A. Vagus
• B. Facial
• C. Abducens
• D. Oculomotor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facial. Assessment of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) involves noting mobility and symmetry as the client performs various facial movements, including puffing out the cheeks. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and cranial nerve X (vagus nerve) are tested together for different functions. The abducens, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves are assessed together for eye movements and pupil reactions, not cheek puffing.

3. The greatest time savers when planning client care include all of the following except:

• A. reacting to the crisis of the moment
• B. setting goals
• C. planning
• D. specifying priorities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The greatest time-savers when planning client care are activities that facilitate focus and completion of priority items. Time-savers include setting goals, specifying priorities, planning tasks, delegating where appropriate, reassessment, and ongoing evaluation of needs. Reacting to the crisis of the moment is not a time-saving strategy in client care planning; it can lead to inefficiency, lack of focus, and potentially missing important priority items. Therefore, the correct answer is 'reacting to the crisis of the moment.' Choices B, C, and D are essential components for effective client care planning as they help in organizing and prioritizing tasks, setting objectives, and ensuring a structured approach to care delivery.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Primary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

5. A hepatitis B screen is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate the presence of antigens in the client's blood. On the basis of this finding, the nurse makes which determination?

• A. Hepatitis immune globulin and vaccine will be administered to the newborn infant soon after birth
• B. The results are negative.
• C. The results indicate that the mother does not have hepatitis B
• D. The client needs to receive the hepatitis B series of vaccines.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A hepatitis B screen is performed to identify antigens in maternal blood. If antigens are present, it indicates that the mother is a carrier, and the newborn will need to receive hepatitis immune globulin and vaccine soon after birth to prevent transmission. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B and C are incorrect because the presence of antigens indicates a positive result, not a negative one or the absence of hepatitis B in the mother. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests the client needs to receive the hepatitis B series of vaccines, which is not the immediate action required when antigens are found in the maternal blood.

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