Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to auscultate a client's breath sounds. To assess vesicular breath sounds, the nurse places the stethoscope over which area?

• A. Major bronchi
• B. The xiphoid process
• C. The trachea and larynx
• D. The peripheral lung fields

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To assess vesicular breath sounds, the nurse should place the stethoscope over the peripheral lung fields. Vesicular breath sounds are heard in these areas where air flows through the smaller bronchioles and alveoli. Bronchovesicular breath sounds, not vesicular, are heard over the major bronchi. Bronchial (tracheal) breath sounds are heard over the trachea and larynx, not vesicular sounds. Breath sounds are not heard over the xiphoid process, making it an incorrect choice.

2. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

3. A client with massive chest and head injuries is admitted to the ICU from the Emergency Department. All of the following are true except:

• A. The physician in charge of the case is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur.
• B. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation for the donor if the client is unable to do so.
• C. The organ procurement organization makes the decision regarding which organs to harvest.
• D. The donor (or legally responsible party for the donor), the physician, and the organ-procurement organization are all involved in the process.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: While the physician plays a crucial role in the process of organ donation, they are not the sole decision-maker. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation if the client is unable to do so. Additionally, the organ procurement organization is responsible for determining which organs are suitable for donation. Therefore, the statement that the physician in charge is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur is incorrect. The correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D are true statements as they highlight the involvement of the legally responsible party, the organ procurement organization, and the donor/legally responsible party, physician, and organ-procurement organization in the organ donation process respectively.

4. Which of the following home-care strategies is most likely to negatively impact the body image of a client with Cushing's syndrome?

• A. providing safety measures to prevent falls
• B. taking medications as prescribed
• C. wearing a medical ID indicating Cushing's syndrome
• D. having regular health assessments

Correct answer: C

Rationale: All of the strategies listed are essential components of home care for a client with Cushing's syndrome. However, wearing a medical ID indicating Cushing's syndrome is the correct answer as it can have a negative impact on body image. This choice may constantly remind the client of their condition, potentially affecting their self-image and confidence. On the contrary, providing safety measures to prevent falls (Choice A) would enhance body image by promoting safety and preventing injuries. Taking medications as prescribed (Choice B) is likely to improve body image by managing symptoms effectively. Having regular health assessments (Choice D) demonstrates good self-care and can positively contribute to body image by showing a commitment to maintaining health.

5. To identify risk factors associated with the use of an oral contraceptive, which question should the nurse ask a client providing subjective data?

• A. Do you normally experience menstrual cramps with your periods?
• B. Do you smoke cigarettes?
• C. Are you currently dieting?
• D. Do you engage in strenuous exercise, such as jogging?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct question the nurse should ask to identify risk factors associated with the use of an oral contraceptive is whether the client smokes cigarettes. Oral contraceptives are associated with an increased risk of thromboembolic phenomena, particularly when combined with other risk factors like smoking and a history of thrombosis. Other risk factors include hypertension, cerebrovascular disease, coronary artery disease, and postoperative thrombosis risk. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to the increased risks associated with oral contraceptive use. Menstrual cramps, dieting, and strenuous exercise are not significant risk factors for thromboembolic events.

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