NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. A nurse is preparing to auscultate a client's breath sounds. To assess vesicular breath sounds, the nurse places the stethoscope over which area?
- A. Major bronchi
- B. The xiphoid process
- C. The trachea and larynx
- D. The peripheral lung fields
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To assess vesicular breath sounds, the nurse should place the stethoscope over the peripheral lung fields. Vesicular breath sounds are heard in these areas where air flows through the smaller bronchioles and alveoli. Bronchovesicular breath sounds, not vesicular, are heard over the major bronchi. Bronchial (tracheal) breath sounds are heard over the trachea and larynx, not vesicular sounds. Breath sounds are not heard over the xiphoid process, making it an incorrect choice.
2. The client is being discharged with a prescription for an inhaled glucocorticoid for asthma. Which of the following statements indicates additional education is needed prior to discharge?
- A. "I will hold my breath for 10 seconds after each puff."?
- B. "I will wait five minutes after taking this medication and then gargle water."?
- C. "I will wait at least one minute between each puff."?
- D. "I will take this medication daily even if I am not having symptoms."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I will wait five minutes after taking this medication and then gargle water.' After using an inhaled glucocorticoid, it is essential to wait for 5 minutes and then gargle water to remove any residue from the mouth, which can reduce the risk of developing thrush, a fungal infection. Choice A is correct as holding the breath for 10 seconds after each puff helps the medication reach deep into the lungs. Choice C is also correct as waiting at least one minute between puffs ensures proper delivery of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because it is important to take the medication daily as prescribed to control asthma symptoms, even if the person is not experiencing any at that moment.
3. A client, age 28, is 8 1/2 months pregnant. She is most likely to display which normal skin-color variation?
- A. vitiligo
- B. erythema
- C. cyanosis
- D. chloasma
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is described as tan-to-brown patches on the face. This hyperpigmentation results from hormonal changes during pregnancy. Vitiligo is characterized by depigmented patches, erythema is redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, and cyanosis is a bluish discoloration due to poor circulation or lack of oxygen, none of which are typical skin-color variations during pregnancy. Therefore, in a pregnant client, the most likely normal skin-color variation to be displayed is chloasma.
4. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?
- A. The client is legally blind.
- B. The client has normal vision.
- C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
- D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.
5. A client is taking phenelzine (Nardil), and their spouse would like to bring lunch from home. Which of the following is most appropriate for the client to eat?
- A. a banana
- B. grapefruit
- C. a salami sandwich
- D. avocado slices
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is grapefruit. Clients taking MAO Inhibitors like phenelzine (Nardil) should avoid foods rich in tyramine to prevent hypertensive crisis. Grapefruit is a suitable choice as it is not high in tyramine. Bananas, avocados, and salami are foods that should be avoided due to their tyramine content, which can interact adversely with MAO Inhibitors. Therefore, choosing grapefruit is the safest option for the client.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access