Nursing Elites

1. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?

• A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
• B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
• C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
• D. The test results are normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.

2. How often should the nurse change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions?

• A. every 24 hours
• B. every 36 hours
• C. every 48 hours
• D. every 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'every 24 hours.' Changing the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours is crucial due to the high risk of bacterial growth. Bacterial contamination can lead to serious infections in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals between tubing changes increases the risk of bacterial contamination and infection, compromising patient safety. It is essential to maintain a strict 24-hour schedule to minimize the risk of complications associated with bacterial contamination.

3. In the context of diagnostic genetic counseling, which of the following choices is typically not made by clients?

• A. Terminating the pregnancy.
• B. Preparing for the birth of a child with special needs.
• C. Accessing support services before the birth.
• D. Completing the grieving process before the birth.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diagnostic genetic counseling, clients may face difficult decisions based on test results. Terminating the pregnancy is a choice some clients may consider if severe abnormalities are detected. Preparing for the birth of a child with special needs involves getting ready to care for a child who may require extra attention and support. Accessing support services before the birth can help clients connect with resources and professionals for assistance during and after the pregnancy. Completing the grieving process before birth is not typically a choice made in the context of genetic counseling. The grieving process often starts or continues after distressing results and can extend beyond the birth of the child. Therefore, the correct answer is completing the grieving process before the birth.

4. A nurse in the emergency department is assisting with data collection of a client. The presence of which condition would cause the nurse to avoid testing range of motion (ROM) of the cervical spine?

• A. Headache
• B. Neck trauma
• C. Sinus infection
• D. Muscle spasms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nurse assisting with data collection for a client should avoid testing the range of motion (ROM) of the cervical spine if the client has neck trauma. Neck trauma may have resulted in a cervical fracture, and further movement of the neck could lead to spinal cord injury. Testing ROM does not need to be avoided for headache, sinus infection, or muscle spasms as these conditions do not pose the same risk of exacerbating a potential cervical injury. Therefore, the correct answer is neck trauma.

5. A client asks the nurse what risk factors increase the chances of getting skin cancer. The risk factors include all except:

• A. light or fair complexion.
• B. exposure to sun for extended periods of time.
• C. certain diet and foods.
• D. history of bad sunburns.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'certain diet and foods.' Risk factors that increase the chances of getting skin cancer include having a light or fair complexion, a history of bad sunburns, personal or family history of skin cancer, outdoor activities with sun exposure, exposure to X-rays or radiation, exposure to certain chemicals, repeated trauma or injury resulting in scars, age over 50, male gender, and living in specific geographic locations. These factors can contribute to the development of skin cancer. Avoiding exposure to the sun, using protective clothing and sunscreen, and regular skin inspections are key preventive measures. Choice C, 'certain diet and foods,' is incorrect as diet is not a primary risk factor for skin cancer. Options A, B, and D are all valid risk factors associated with an increased risk of developing skin cancer.

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