Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following foods is a complete protein?

• A. corn
• B. eggs
• C. peanuts
• D. sunflower seeds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'eggs.' Eggs are considered a complete protein as they contain all nine essential amino acids required by the body. On the other hand, corn, peanuts, and sunflower seeds are incomplete proteins, meaning they lack one or more of the essential amino acids needed by the body for optimal health. Corn, peanuts, and sunflower seeds are plant-based proteins that are deficient in one or more essential amino acids, unlike eggs, which are a high-quality complete protein source.

2. The teaching plan for a postpartum client who is about to be discharged should include which of the following instructions?

• A. "It is normal for your breasts to be tender. You should call the physician if you also have redness and fatigue."?
• B. "Because your baby was delivered vaginally, you might have to urinate more frequently."?
• C. "It is normal to run a low-grade temperature for a few days. If it is higher than 100�F, call your physician."?
• D. "Be sure to call your physician if your vaginal discharge becomes bright red."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the postpartum client to call the physician if their vaginal discharge becomes bright red. The vaginal discharge after birth is called lochia, and a return to red or containing clots could indicate impending hemorrhage or infection, necessitating notification of the physician. Choice A is incorrect because although some tenderness may be expected, redness and fatigue are clinical manifestations of mastitis, not normal postpartum changes. Choice B is also incorrect as increased frequency of urination after vaginal delivery could indicate a urinary tract infection, not a normal postpartum change. Choice C is incorrect because running a low-grade temperature for a few days is not expected postpartum; an elevated temperature above 100�F should be reported to the physician as it could indicate infection.

3. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
• B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
• C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
• D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.

4. While assessing a client’s skin, the nurse notes the presence of several large red-blue and purple areas on the client’s body that do not blanch when pressure is applied. The nurse documents this finding using which term?

• A. Psoriasis
• B. Anasarca
• C. Petechiae
• D. Ecchymosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ecchymosis refers to a large patch of capillary bleeding into the tissues, commonly known as a bruise. The color of such an area changes from red-blue or purple to green, yellow, and brown before the area disappears. Pressure on the area will not cause it to blanch. Psoriasis is characterized by scaly erythematous patches with silvery scales on top, usually found on specific areas like the scalp, elbows, knees, low back, and anogenital area. Anasarca is bilateral or generalized edema, indicating a central problem like congestive heart failure or kidney failure. Petechiae are tiny purple or red spots resulting from tiny hemorrhages within the dermal and subdermal areas. Therefore, in this case, the correct term to document the described finding is Ecchymosis.

5. At what age are yearly mammograms recommended to start?

• A. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 25.
• B. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 40.
• C. Yearly mammograms are not necessary unless there is a family history of breast cancer.
• D. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 20 and continuing until menopause begins.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The American Cancer Society recommends yearly mammograms starting at age 40 and continuing for as long as a woman is in good health. Clinical breast examination should be done about every 3 years for women in their 20s and 30s and every year for women age 40 and older. Women should know how their breasts normally look and feel and report any breast change promptly to the healthcare provider. Breast self-examination should be done monthly starting when a woman is in her 20s. Choice A is incorrect as mammograms are not recommended to start at age 25. Choice C is incorrect as yearly mammograms are still recommended even without a family history of breast cancer. Choice D is incorrect as the recommended age for starting yearly mammograms is 40, not 20.

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