NCLEX-PN
Best NCLEX Next Gen Prep
1. Which of the following foods is a complete protein?
- A. corn
- B. eggs
- C. peanuts
- D. sunflower seeds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'eggs.' Eggs are considered a complete protein as they contain all nine essential amino acids required by the body. On the other hand, corn, peanuts, and sunflower seeds are incomplete proteins, meaning they lack one or more of the essential amino acids needed by the body for optimal health. Corn, peanuts, and sunflower seeds are plant-based proteins that are deficient in one or more essential amino acids, unlike eggs, which are a high-quality complete protein source.
2. The LPN participates in a home visit for a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin for 3 years. The client states that for the past 3 months, they have been trying a vegan diet and experiencing fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. What is a likely cause of the new symptoms?
- A. vitamin B12 deficiency
- B. chronic hypoglycemia
- C. vitamin D deficiency
- D. increased tolerance to Metformin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is vitamin B12 deficiency. Long-term use of Metformin can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency, and a vegan diet is low in vitamin B12. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include anemia, fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. Chronic hypoglycemia is unlikely in a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin as it typically causes hyperglycemia. Vitamin D deficiency usually presents with symptoms related to bones and muscles, not confusion and mood changes. Increased tolerance to Metformin does not explain the client's new symptoms, which are more indicative of a nutritional deficiency like vitamin B12.
3. When removing hard contact lenses from an unresponsive client, what should the nurse do?
- A. Gently irrigate the eye with an irrigating solution from the inner canthus outward.
- B. Grasp the lens with a gentle pinching motion.
- C. Don sterile gloves before attempting the procedure.
- D. Ensure that the lens is centered on the cornea before gently manipulating the lids to release the lens.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When removing hard contact lenses, it is crucial to ensure that the lens is correctly positioned on the cornea before removal. Directly grasping the lens can potentially scratch the cornea, so it is essential to gently manipulate the lids to release the lens safely. Gently irrigating the eye is unnecessary and could be harmful, especially without the client's cooperation. Wearing sterile gloves is also unnecessary for this specific procedure. Therefore, the correct approach is to ensure the proper positioning of the lens and then gently manipulate the lids to release it. Options A and C are incorrect because irrigating the eye and wearing sterile gloves are not necessary for contact lens removal. Option B is incorrect as directly grasping the lens can be harmful to the cornea.
4. When preparing to listen to a client's breath sounds, what technique should a nurse use?
- A. Ask the client to sit and lean forward slightly, with the arms resting comfortably across the lap.
- B. Listen to the right lung first, then the left lung, moving from top to bottom systematically.
- C. Ask the client to take deep breaths through the mouth.
- D. Use the diaphragm of the stethoscope, holding it firmly against the client's chest.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When preparing to listen to a client's breath sounds, a nurse should ask the client to sit and lean forward slightly, with the arms resting comfortably across the lap. The client should be instructed to breathe through the mouth a little more deeply than usual but to stop if feeling dizzy. The nurse should use the flat diaphragm end-piece of the stethoscope, holding it firmly on the chest wall. By using the diaphragm, the nurse can listen for at least one full respiration in each location, moving from side to side to compare sounds. This technique ensures a systematic and thorough assessment of lung sounds. Choice A is correct as it includes the proper positioning of the client and specifies the use of the diaphragm of the stethoscope. Choice B is incorrect as both lungs should be auscultated systematically, starting from the top and moving down. Choice C is incorrect as deep breaths, not shallow ones, are recommended for an accurate assessment of breath sounds.
5. When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?
- A. nausea and vomiting
- B. itching
- C. urinary retention
- D. somnolence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.
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