NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. The LPN is caring for a 9-month-old infant. Which of these behaviors exhibited by the child warrants further investigation?
- A. She prefers crawling over walking and makes no attempt to walk.
- B. She seems distressed by new adults.
- C. She does not respond to her own name.
- D. She only babbles "mama"? and "dada."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the child does not respond to her own name. By 9 months, children should be babbling simple words, crawling, and responding to their name. Not responding to one's name can be an early indicator of a potential developmental delay, warranting further investigation. Preferring crawling over walking, being distressed by new adults, and babbling 'mama' and 'dada' are typical behaviors for a 9-month-old and do not necessarily require immediate concern.
2. The LPN is about to give 100 mg Lopressor (metoprolol) to a client. Before administering the drug, they take the patient's vitals, which are as follows: Pulse: 58 Blood Pressure: 90/62 Respirations: 18/minute What action should the LPN take?
- A. Give the client half the prescribed dose and report the findings to the RN on duty.
- B. Give the client double the dose and report the findings to the RN on duty.
- C. Administer the drug and report the findings to the RN on duty.
- D. Hold the drug and report the findings to the RN on duty.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Lopressor is given to treat hypertension, and a pulse of 58 and a blood pressure of 90/62 are considered low. To prevent the client from bottoming out, the drug should be held, and the findings reported to the RN, who should consult with the attending physician. LPNs should never adjust client dosing, as that is outside of their scope of practice. It is crucial to follow facility guidelines, which often recommend holding blood pressure medication at 60 bpm and a systolic pressure of 90 or less. By holding the drug and notifying the RN, the LPN ensures the client's safety and allows for appropriate assessment and decision-making by the healthcare team. Giving half the dose or double the dose without proper authorization can lead to serious complications and is considered unsafe practice.
3. When a client wishes to improve her appearance by removing excess skin from her face and neck, the nurse should provide teaching regarding which of the following procedures?
- A. dermabrasion
- B. rhinoplasty
- C. blepharoplasty
- D. rhytidectomy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'rhytidectomy.' Rhytidectomy, commonly known as a face-lift, is the procedure for removing excess skin from the face and neck. Dermabrasion involves spraying a chemical to freeze the skin lightly, followed by abrasion with sandpaper or a revolving wire brush, used for removing scars, severe acne, and tattoo pigment. Rhinoplasty is for improving the nose's appearance by reshaping the nasal skeleton and overlying skin. Blepharoplasty removes loose and protruding fat from the upper and lower eyelids. Therefore, when a client wants to address excess skin in the face and neck, rhytidectomy is the appropriate procedure.
4. The nurse is assessing the dental status of an 18-month-old child. How many teeth should the nurse expect to examine?
- A. 6
- B. 8
- C. 12
- D. 16
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An 18-month-old child should have approximately 12 teeth. In general, children begin dentition around 6 months of age. During the first 2 years of life, a quick guide to the number of teeth a child should have is as follows: Subtract the number 6 from the number of months in the age of the child. In this example, the child is 18 months old, so the formula is 18 - 6 = 12. The correct answer is 12. Choice A (6) is incorrect as it does not consider the child's age. Choices B (8) and D (16) are incorrect as they do not align with the dental development timeline and the specific age of the child in question.
5. When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?
- A. Hysterosalpingography
- B. Semen analysis
- C. Endometrial biopsy
- D. Transvaginal ultrasound
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Semen analysis is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a couple experiencing infertility. It is the least invasive of the listed tests, and since male factor infertility contributes to around 35% of cases, assessing semen parameters early is crucial. Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic test to evaluate tubal patency and uterine cavity abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy assesses endometrial receptivity post-ovulation. Transvaginal ultrasound is mainly used in infertility treatment to monitor follicle development, oocyte maturity, and luteal phase defects. Choices A, C, and D are more invasive, require specialized expertise, and are costlier. If semen analysis yields normal results, further tests may be warranted.
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