Nursing Elites

1. The LPN is caring for a 9-month-old infant. Which of these behaviors exhibited by the child warrants further investigation?

• A. She prefers crawling over walking and makes no attempt to walk.
• B. She seems distressed by new adults.
• C. She does not respond to her own name.
• D. She only babbles "mama"? and "dada."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the child does not respond to her own name. By 9 months, children should be babbling simple words, crawling, and responding to their name. Not responding to one's name can be an early indicator of a potential developmental delay, warranting further investigation. Preferring crawling over walking, being distressed by new adults, and babbling 'mama' and 'dada' are typical behaviors for a 9-month-old and do not necessarily require immediate concern.

2. A nurse is preparing to test the function of cranial nerve XI. Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?

• A. Asking the client to stick out his or her tongue and watching for tremors
• B. Touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex
• C. Depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah'
• D. Placing his or her hands on the client's shoulders and asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To assess the function of cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the nurse examines the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size and strength. The correct method involves asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance to the side of the chin and to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands. Choice A, asking the client to stick out the tongue and watching for tremors, is used to assess cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). Choice C, depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah', is the technique for examining cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). Choice B, touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex, is used to evaluate cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve), not cranial nerve XI.

3. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

4. A client is pregnant for the sixth time. She tells the nurse that she has had three elective first-trimester abortions and that she has a son who was born at 40 weeks' gestation and a daughter who was born at 36 weeks' gestation. In calculating the gravidity and para (parity), the nurse determines that the client is:

• A. Gravida 2, para 6
• B. Gravida 6, para 2
• C. Gravida 3, para 6
• D. Gravida 2, para 2

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The term gravida refers to the number of pregnancies, of any duration, that a woman has had. Parity (para) refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery. Therefore, this client is gravida 6 (pregnant for the sixth time), para 2 (has a son and a daughter). In this case, the correct answer is Gravida 6, para 2. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the information provided. Pregnancy outcomes are often described using the GTPAL acronym: gravida (G), term births (T), preterm births (P), abortions (A), and live births (L). Applying this to the client's history, the GTPAL would be G = 6, T = 1, P = 1, A = 3, L = 2, which further confirms the correct answer.

5. After undergoing gastric resection, which of the following meals is most likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach?

• A. a high-protein meal
• B. a high-fat meal
• C. a large meal regardless of nutrient content
• D. a high-carbohydrate meal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After gastric resection, meals high in carbohydrates are more likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach. Carbohydrates stimulate the release of gastrin, which accelerates gastric emptying. In contrast, high-fat and high-protein meals tend to delay gastric emptying. While a large meal can slow down gastric emptying, the specific nutrient content, such as high carbohydrates, plays a significant role in promoting rapid emptying. Therefore, a high-carbohydrate meal is the correct choice as it is most likely to lead to rapid gastric emptying compared to the other options.

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