Nursing Elites

1. A 65-year-old female client is experiencing postmenopausal bleeding. Which type of physician should this client be encouraged to see?

• A. a radiologist
• B. a gynecologist
• C. a physiatrist
• D. an oncologist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A gynecologist is the appropriate physician for this scenario as they specialize in treating and managing diseases of the female reproductive system, including postmenopausal bleeding. Postmenopausal bleeding can indicate serious conditions such as endometrial cancer, which a gynecologist can evaluate and manage. A radiologist primarily evaluates X-rays and imaging studies, not directly involved in managing gynecological issues. A physiatrist is a specialist in physical medicine and rehabilitation, not related to gynecological concerns. An oncologist specializes in diagnosing and treating cancer, which is not the primary concern in this case of postmenopausal bleeding.

2. When a client describes their family as having multiple wives, all of whom are sisters, married to one man, the nurse documents the family structure as?

• A. polyandry
• B. sororal
• C. nonsororal
• D. soronal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'soronal.' The practice of polygamy refers to having multiple wives or husbands. When there are multiple wives who are sisters, the polygamy is designated as sororal. Polyandry refers to multiple husbands, which is rare. Nonsororal polygamy is when the wives are not sisters. Sororate polygamy specifies that a husband must marry his wife’s sister if she dies. Therefore, in this scenario, the family structure described by the client fits the definition of soronal polygamy.

3. A middle-aged woman tells the nurse that she has been experiencing irregular menses for the past six months. The nurse should assess the woman for other symptoms of:

• A. climacteric
• B. menopause
• C. perimenopause
• D. postmenopause

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Perimenopause refers to a period in which hormonal changes occur gradually, ovarian function diminishes, and menses become irregular. It typically lasts around five years. In the case of the middle-aged woman experiencing irregular menses for six months, she aligns with perimenopause as it involves irregular menstrual cycles, one of the common symptoms during this transitional phase. Climacteric is a term describing the period of life with physiologic changes leading to the end of a woman's reproductive ability but not specifically characterized by irregular menses. Menopause marks the permanent cessation of menses and does not involve the transitional irregularities seen in perimenopause. Postmenopause is the phase after the completion of menopausal changes.

4. Which of the following is not a nursing responsibility when preparing the client for central line insertion?

• A. advancing the guidewire
• B. explaining the procedure to the client
• C. maintaining sterile technique
• D. ensuring necessary consents are signed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing a client for central line insertion, nursing responsibilities include explaining the procedure to the client, ensuring necessary consents are signed according to the facility policy, and maintaining sterile technique when preparing the equipment and supplies. Advancing the guidewire is typically performed by the practitioner inserting the central line, not the nurse. It requires specialized training and expertise beyond the scope of nursing practice. Therefore, the correct answer is advancing the guidewire. Option A is the correct answer because it delineates an activity that is not within the usual scope of nursing practice during central line insertion preparation. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they reflect essential nursing responsibilities in this context.

5. A woman is receiving oxytocin to induce labor. Which action should the nurse take first upon noting the presence of late decelerations on the fetal heart rate (FHR) monitor?

• A. Notifying the healthcare provider
• B. Stopping the oxytocin infusion
• C. Checking the woman's blood pressure and pulse
• D. Increasing the intravenous (IV) rate of the nonadditive solution

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When late decelerations are noted on the fetal heart rate (FHR) monitor during oxytocin infusion, it indicates decreased oxygenation to the fetus. The immediate action the nurse should take is to stop the oxytocin infusion. This helps reduce uterine activity, increase fetal oxygenation, and prevent further stress on the fetus. Stopping the oxytocin infusion is crucial to address the underlying issue causing the late decelerations. Checking the woman's blood pressure and pulse, increasing the IV rate of the nonadditive solution, or notifying the healthcare provider can be important actions but are secondary to stopping the oxytocin infusion in this scenario.

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