Nursing Elites

1. A 65-year-old female client is experiencing postmenopausal bleeding. Which type of physician should this client be encouraged to see?

• A. a radiologist
• B. a gynecologist
• C. a physiatrist
• D. an oncologist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A gynecologist is the appropriate physician for this scenario as they specialize in treating and managing diseases of the female reproductive system, including postmenopausal bleeding. Postmenopausal bleeding can indicate serious conditions such as endometrial cancer, which a gynecologist can evaluate and manage. A radiologist primarily evaluates X-rays and imaging studies, not directly involved in managing gynecological issues. A physiatrist is a specialist in physical medicine and rehabilitation, not related to gynecological concerns. An oncologist specializes in diagnosing and treating cancer, which is not the primary concern in this case of postmenopausal bleeding.

2. While assisting with data collection regarding the neurological system, the nurse asks the client to puff out both cheeks. Which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?

• A. Vagus
• B. Facial
• C. Abducens
• D. Oculomotor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facial. Assessment of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) involves noting mobility and symmetry as the client performs various facial movements, including puffing out the cheeks. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and cranial nerve X (vagus nerve) are tested together for different functions. The abducens, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves are assessed together for eye movements and pupil reactions, not cheek puffing.

3. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
• B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
• C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
• D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.

4. A client in labor complains of back discomfort. Which position will best aid in relieving the discomfort? What position should the nurse encourage the mother to assume?

• A. Prone
• B. Standing
• C. Supine
• D. Hands and knees

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During back labor, when the back of the fetal head puts pressure on the woman's sacral promontory, the hands-and-knees position is encouraged. This position helps the fetus move away from the sacral promontory, reducing back pain and enhancing the internal-rotation mechanism of labor. A prone position would be difficult for the woman to assume and not helpful in relieving back discomfort. The supine position is risky due to supine hypotension, while standing may increase pressure, worsening backache.

5. The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles.
• B. When refrigerating formula, discard partially used bottles after 24 hours.
• C. When using formula concentrate, mix one part water and one part concentrate.
• D. When using powdered formula, mix two parts water and one part powder.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles. It is essential for parents to be cautious when warming bottles in a microwave oven to prevent superheating of the milk. Choosing the defrost setting and checking the formula temperature before giving it to the baby helps avoid burns. Discarding partially used bottles after 24 hours when refrigerating formula is crucial as it reduces the risk of harmful bacterial growth. Mixing formula concentrate with water in a 1:1 ratio of one part concentrate to one part water ensures proper dilution of the formula. On the other hand, powdered formula should be mixed following the package instructions, typically using two parts water to one part powder. This accurate mixing ratio provides the necessary balance of nutrients for the baby. Adding fresh formula to partially used bottles can introduce pathogens that may harm the infant, underscoring the importance of discarding partially used bottles and preparing formula correctly. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the safe and proper ways to feed a newborn effectively.

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