Nursing Elites

1. During a throat assessment, a healthcare provider asks a client to stick out their tongue and notices it protrudes in the midline. Which cranial nerve is being tested?

• A. Cranial nerve X
• B. Cranial nerve V
• C. Cranial nerve IX
• D. Cranial nerve XII

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). When testing cranial nerve XII, the healthcare provider inspects the symmetry and movement of the tongue. The tongue should protrude in the midline when the client sticks it out. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve) are tested by depressing the tongue with a blade to observe pharyngeal movement and gag reflex. Cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) is responsible for testing the muscles of mastication, not tongue protrusion.

2. A 65-year-old female client is experiencing postmenopausal bleeding. Which type of physician should this client be encouraged to see?

• A. a radiologist
• B. a gynecologist
• C. a physiatrist
• D. an oncologist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A 65-year-old female experiencing postmenopausal bleeding should be encouraged to see a gynecologist. Gynecologists specialize in treating and managing diseases of the female reproductive organs, making them the most appropriate physician for this issue. Postmenopausal bleeding can indicate various gynecological conditions such as endometrial atrophy, endometrial hyperplasia, or endometrial cancer, highlighting the importance of consulting a gynecologist for proper diagnosis and management. Radiologists evaluate X-rays, physiatrists manage rehabilitation teams, and oncologists treat clients with cancer. Therefore, in this case, the symptoms point towards a gynecological problem, emphasizing the necessity of seeking care from a gynecologist.

3. A sexually active adolescent asks the school nurse about the use of latex condoms and the reduction of the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). The nurse provides which information to the adolescent?

• A. Using a latex condom is a good method for reducing the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
• B. The only way to reduce the risk of transmission of STIs is abstinence.
• C. A spermicide needs to be used along with a condom to prevent transmission of STIs.
• D. Using a latex condom can reduce the risk of transmission of STIs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that using a condom during intercourse can reduce the risk of STI transmission. Abstinence is a way to prevent STIs, but not the only way. Using a spermicide along with a condom can help prevent pregnancy, not STIs. While condoms may fail to prevent pregnancy, they are effective in reducing the risk of STI transmission. Therefore, using a latex condom for pregnancy prevention is not directly related to preventing the transmission of STIs.

4. The LPN receives a call from a mother caring for her eight-month-old infant. The mother describes that the child has a low-grade fever and has teeth breaking through the gums. Which of the following measures would be inappropriate to recommend to the mother?

• A. Allow the child to chew on a cooled teething ring.
• B. Massage the child's gums gently.
• C. Administer acetaminophen.
• D. Administer aspirin.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering aspirin would be inappropriate in this situation. Aspirin should not be recommended for children due to the increased risk of Reye's syndrome, a serious condition. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate measures for managing teething discomfort in infants. Allowing the child to chew on a cooled teething ring can help soothe the gums, massaging the child's gums gently can provide relief, and administering acetaminophen is a suitable option for pain relief in infants with teething discomfort. Aspirin is contraindicated in children with viral infections due to the risk of Reye's syndrome, a potentially fatal condition affecting the brain and liver. Therefore, recommending aspirin to the mother would not be appropriate in this case.

5. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

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