Nursing Elites

1. During a throat assessment, a healthcare provider asks a client to stick out their tongue and notices it protrudes in the midline. Which cranial nerve is being tested?

• A. Cranial nerve X
• B. Cranial nerve V
• C. Cranial nerve IX
• D. Cranial nerve XII

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). When testing cranial nerve XII, the healthcare provider inspects the symmetry and movement of the tongue. The tongue should protrude in the midline when the client sticks it out. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve) are tested by depressing the tongue with a blade to observe pharyngeal movement and gag reflex. Cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) is responsible for testing the muscles of mastication, not tongue protrusion.

2. A nurse is assisting with data collection regarding the motor development of a 24-month-old child. Which activities would the nurse expect the mother to report that the child can perform?

• A. Go to the bathroom without help
• B. Dress himself appropriately
• C. Put on and tie his shoes
• D. Align two or more blocks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: By 24 months of age, a child can perform various activities. While the child may be able to put on simple items of clothing, distinguishing front from back might still be a challenge. They may also be able to zip large zippers, put on shoes, wash and dry their hands, align two or more blocks, and turn book pages one at a time. However, the fine motor skill required to tie shoes is usually not developed at this age. Full independence in dressing, using the bathroom, and eating typically occurs around 4 to 5 years of age. Therefore, the correct expectation for a 24-month-old child would be aligning two or more blocks. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they represent skills that are usually achieved at a later age.

3. When a nurse asks a client to repeat the word 'ninety-nine' while listening through the stethoscope and is able to hear the word clearly, which assessment finding is being documented?

• A. Normal egophony
• B. Abnormal vesicular breath sounds
• C. Abnormal bronchophony
• D. Normal whispered pectoriloquy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse is documenting an abnormal bronchophony assessment finding. Bronchophony is a technique where the nurse asks the client to repeat a specific word, such as 'ninety-nine,' while listening through the stethoscope. Normally, the voice transmission is soft, muffled, and indistinct. However, if there is a pathologic condition increasing lung density, the nurse will hear the word clearly, indicating an abnormality. Vesicular breath sounds are normal sounds heard over peripheral lung fields and are not related to vocal resonance assessment. Egophony involves the client phonating a long 'ee-ee-ee-ee' sound, not repeating a specific word. Whispered pectoriloquy involves whispering a phrase like 'one-two-three,' not repeating a specific word. In these cases, normal findings are 'eeeeee' for egophony and a muffled, almost inaudible sound for whispered pectoriloquy.

4. When a client and their family are facing the end stage of a terminal illness, where might they be best served?

• A. Rehabilitation center.
• B. Extended care facility.
• C. Hospice.
• D. Crisis intervention center.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client and their family are facing the end stage of a terminal illness, they are best served by Hospice. Hospice offers a more humanized alternative care for dying clients compared to hospitals, focusing on comfort and quality of life in the final stages of life. It provides a specialized interdisciplinary team of health care professionals who work together to manage client care. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a rehabilitation center focuses on physical therapy, an extended care facility provides long-term care for activities of daily living, and a crisis intervention center deals with immediate psychological or social crises, none of which cater to the specific needs of clients facing the end stage of a terminal illness.

5. A client is taught about healthy dietary measures and the MyPlate food plan. How many of his grains should be whole grains according to the MyPlate food plan?

• A. One-quarter
• B. One-third
• C. One-half
• D. Two-thirds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'One-half.' According to the MyPlate food plan, at least half of the grains consumed daily should be whole grains. This ensures a well-balanced and healthy diet. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the dietary recommendation provided by the MyPlate food plan. One-quarter, one-third, and two-thirds do not represent the appropriate proportion of whole grains as advised by the plan, which emphasizes the importance of including a significant portion of whole grains in one's diet.

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