Nursing Elites

1. During a throat assessment, a healthcare provider asks a client to stick out their tongue and notices it protrudes in the midline. Which cranial nerve is being tested?

• A. Cranial nerve X
• B. Cranial nerve V
• C. Cranial nerve IX
• D. Cranial nerve XII

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). When testing cranial nerve XII, the healthcare provider inspects the symmetry and movement of the tongue. The tongue should protrude in the midline when the client sticks it out. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve) are tested by depressing the tongue with a blade to observe pharyngeal movement and gag reflex. Cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) is responsible for testing the muscles of mastication, not tongue protrusion.

2. Quality is defined as a combination of all of the following except:

• A. conforming to standards.
• B. performing at the minimally acceptable level.
• C. meeting or exceeding customer requirements.
• D. exceeding customer expectations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'performing at the minimally acceptable level.' Quality is about meeting or exceeding customer requirements and expectations, as well as conforming to standards. The term 'performing at the minimally acceptable level' implies just meeting the minimum requirements, which falls short of the comprehensive definition of quality in terms of customer satisfaction and excellence. Therefore, this choice is the exception when defining quality. Choices A, C, and D align with the definition of quality as they all involve meeting or surpassing certain criteria for customer satisfaction and product excellence, which are essential components of quality management.

3. What is the threshold of dextrose concentrations that can safely be administered through a peripheral IV?

• A. Dextrose concentrations below 20% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 20% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
• B. Dextrose concentrations below 5% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 5% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
• C. Dextrose concentrations below 10% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 10% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
• D. Dextrose concentrations above 5% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations below 5% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dextrose concentrations below 10% are considered safe for administration through a peripheral IV, as concentrations above this threshold can lead to phlebitis, causing inflammation of the vein. Concentrations above 10% should not be administered through a peripheral IV to prevent vein irritation. Choice A is incorrect because concentrations above 20% are too high for a peripheral IV. Choice B is incorrect as dextrose concentrations below 5% are too low to be effective. Choice D is incorrect because the statement is reversed, suggesting that concentrations above 5% are safe, which is not true.

4. When assessing a client with deep pitting edema, with the indentation remaining for a short time and visible leg swelling, how should a nurse document this finding?

• A. 1+ edema
• B. 2+ edema
• C. 3+ edema
• D. 4+ edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 3+ edema. When assessing for edema, the nurse presses thumbs against the ankle malleolus or the tibia. If the skin retains an indentation, it indicates pitting edema. The grading scale for pitting edema includes: 1+ for mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible leg swelling, 2+ for moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly, 3+ for deep pitting with an indentation remaining briefly and visible leg swelling, and 4+ for very deep pitting with a long-lasting indentation and significant leg swelling. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately represent the severity of the edema described in the scenario.

5. When a client who is 25 years of age asks the nurse when she should seek fertility counseling, the best response by the nurse is:

• A. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have been unable to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse."?
• B. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have not been able to conceive after 6-9 months of unprotected intercourse."?
• C. "The average time it takes someone your age to conceive is 5.3 months, so if you haven't conceived by then, we can refer you."?
• D. "We can give you some guidance now on how to increase your chances of conceiving and then refer you if it doesn't happen within a year."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is to offer immediate guidance while also indicating when fertility counseling should be sought. While Choice A is technically correct as guidelines recommend seeking fertility counseling after 1 year of unprotected intercourse, it lacks providing immediate guidance. Choice B suggests seeking counseling after 6-9 months, which is earlier than the standard recommendation of 1 year. Choice C mentions the average time to conceive for someone of the client's age without addressing the client's current concern. Therefore, Choice D is the most appropriate response as it offers immediate guidance along with a plan for referral if needed.

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