Nursing Elites

1. While a client is on total parenteral nutrition, which of the following values should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. calcium
• B. magnesium
• C. glucose
• D. cholesterol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Glucose should be monitored closely when a client is on total parenteral nutrition due to the high glucose concentration in the solutions. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Calcium and magnesium are usually monitored to assess electrolyte imbalances, while cholesterol levels are not directly impacted by total parenteral nutrition. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are not the primary values that need close monitoring during total parenteral nutrition.

2. When educating an obese client about nutritional needs and weight loss, which of the following should not be included?

• A. knowledge of food and food products
• B. development of a positive mental attitude
• C. adequate exercise
• D. starting a fast weight-loss diet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When educating an obese client about nutritional needs and weight loss, it is important to cover factors such as knowledge of food and food products, the development of a positive mental attitude, and the importance of adequate exercise. These aspects contribute to a holistic approach to weight management. However, recommending the client to start a fast weight-loss diet should not be included. Fast weight-loss diets can be harmful, leading to health risks, nutrient deficiencies, and unsustainable outcomes. It is crucial to advocate for gradual, sustainable weight loss strategies to ensure long-term success and overall well-being. Therefore, starting a fast weight-loss diet is the least appropriate option among the choices provided.

3. Immediately after delivery, the nurse assesses the woman's uterine fundus. At what location does the nurse expect to be able to palpate the fundus?

• A. At the level of the umbilicus
• B. Two centimeters above the umbilicus
• C. Midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
• D. In the pelvic cavity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. Immediately after delivery, the uterus is about the size of a large grapefruit or softball. The fundus can be palpated at this location but then rises to a level just above the umbilicus before sinking to the level of the umbilicus, where it remains for about 24 hours. After 24 hours, the fundus starts descending gradually. By the 10th to 14th day, the fundus is in the pelvic cavity and cannot be palpated abdominally. Choices A and B are incorrect as the fundus is not initially at the level of the umbilicus or 2 centimeters above it. Choice D is also incorrect as the fundus does not remain in the pelvic cavity immediately after delivery.

4. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

5. A clinic nurse about to meet a new client plans to gather subjective data regarding the client's health history. Which action does the nurse take to help ensure the success of the interview?

• A. Ensuring that the room is private
• B. Having the client sit across from the nurse without a desk or table between them
• C. Maintaining a distance of 4 to 5 feet between the nurse and client
• D. Adjusting the room lighting to ensure it is comfortable and conducive for the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The physical environment of an interview room should provide optimal conditions to encourage a smooth interview and make the client feel comfortable. The nurse ensures that privacy is maintained to avoid interruptions during the interview. This helps create a safe space for the client to share sensitive information. Having the client sit across from the nurse without a desk or table between them is also important to promote open communication and build rapport. Maintaining a distance of 4 to 5 feet from the client respects their personal space and helps prevent the client from feeling overwhelmed. While adjusting the room lighting is beneficial for creating a comfortable atmosphere, ensuring privacy is crucial for establishing trust and confidentiality. Therefore, ensuring that the room is private is crucial for the success of the interview, making choice A the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the importance of privacy in creating a conducive environment for the interview.

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