Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing a female client for a rectal examination. Into which position does the nurse assist the client?

• A. Supine
• B. Standing
• C. Lithotomy
• D. Left lateral

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a rectal examination in a female client, the nurse should assist the client into the left lateral position. This position allows easier access to the rectal area, facilitating the examination. The lithotomy position is used for examining the genitalia and rectum in females, not solely for a rectal examination. The standing position is not appropriate for a rectal examination as it does not provide the necessary access. The supine position would hinder the effectiveness of a rectal examination as it does not optimize access to the rectal area.

2. At what age are yearly mammograms recommended to start?

• A. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 25.
• B. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 40.
• C. Yearly mammograms are not necessary unless there is a family history of breast cancer.
• D. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 20 and continuing until menopause begins.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The American Cancer Society recommends yearly mammograms starting at age 40 and continuing for as long as a woman is in good health. Clinical breast examination should be done about every 3 years for women in their 20s and 30s and every year for women age 40 and older. Women should know how their breasts normally look and feel and report any breast change promptly to the healthcare provider. Breast self-examination should be done monthly starting when a woman is in her 20s. Choice A is incorrect as mammograms are not recommended to start at age 25. Choice C is incorrect as yearly mammograms are still recommended even without a family history of breast cancer. Choice D is incorrect as the recommended age for starting yearly mammograms is 40, not 20.

3. When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?

• A. Hysterosalpingography
• B. Semen analysis
• C. Endometrial biopsy
• D. Transvaginal ultrasound

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Semen analysis is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a couple experiencing infertility. It is the least invasive of the listed tests, and since male factor infertility contributes to around 35% of cases, assessing semen parameters early is crucial. Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic test to evaluate tubal patency and uterine cavity abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy assesses endometrial receptivity post-ovulation. Transvaginal ultrasound is mainly used in infertility treatment to monitor follicle development, oocyte maturity, and luteal phase defects. Choices A, C, and D are more invasive, require specialized expertise, and are costlier. If semen analysis yields normal results, further tests may be warranted.

4. The LPN has been asked to help a client taking Risperdal with activities of daily living in the morning. Which of these tasks is most likely to be potentially impacted by this medication?

• A. eating breakfast
• B. drinking fluids
• C. getting out of bed to use the bathroom
• D. brushing teeth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'getting out of bed to use the bathroom.' Risperdal can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a drop in blood pressure when changing positions from lying down to standing up. This effect increases the risk of falls, emphasizing the need to assist the client with this task to prevent potential harm. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be directly impacted by the medication, unlike the significant risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with changing positions.

5. While performing a physical assessment on a 6-month-old infant, the nurse observes head lag. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse perform first?

• A. Ask the parents to allow the infant to lie on his stomach to promote muscle development.
• B. Notify the physician because a developmental or neurological evaluation is indicated.
• C. Document the findings as abnormal in the nurse's notes.
• D. Explain to the parents that their child is likely to have developmental delays.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Head lag should be completely resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age indicates the need for further developmental or neurological evaluation. Laying the infant on his stomach promotes muscle development of the neck and shoulder muscles, but because of the age of this child, a referral should be the first action. The findings are abnormal for a 6-month-old infant. Significant head lag can be seen in infants with Down syndrome and hypoxia, as well as neurological and other metabolic disorders. While some of these disorders might include developmental delays, stating this to the parents without a proper evaluation can cause unnecessary distress. The priority is to identify the cause of the head lag through a medical evaluation before discussing potential outcomes with the parents.

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