NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. As part of a routine health screening, the nurse notes the play of a 2-year-old child. Which of the following is an example of age-appropriate play at this age?
- A. builds towers with several blocks
- B. tries to color within the lines
- C. says 'Mine!' when playing with toys
- D. tries to jump rope
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'says 'Mine!' when playing with toys.' At the age of 2, children are in the stage of parallel play and are possessive of their belongings, hence saying 'Mine!' is an age-appropriate behavior. Building towers with blocks (choice A) involves more advanced motor skills and cognitive abilities, which are beyond what most 2-year-olds can do. Trying to color within the lines (choice B) requires fine motor skills that are typically not developed at age 2. Jumping rope (choice D) involves coordination and balance that are beyond the capabilities of a 2-year-old child.
2. To identify risk factors associated with the use of an oral contraceptive, which question should the nurse ask a client providing subjective data?
- A. Do you normally experience menstrual cramps with your periods?
- B. Do you smoke cigarettes?
- C. Are you currently dieting?
- D. Do you engage in strenuous exercise, such as jogging?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct question the nurse should ask to identify risk factors associated with the use of an oral contraceptive is whether the client smokes cigarettes. Oral contraceptives are associated with an increased risk of thromboembolic phenomena, particularly when combined with other risk factors like smoking and a history of thrombosis. Other risk factors include hypertension, cerebrovascular disease, coronary artery disease, and postoperative thrombosis risk. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to the increased risks associated with oral contraceptive use. Menstrual cramps, dieting, and strenuous exercise are not significant risk factors for thromboembolic events.
3. In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?
- A. measles, polio, pertussis, hepatitis B
- B. diphtheria, pertussis, polio, tetanus
- C. rubella, polio, pertussis, hepatitis A
- D. measles, mumps, rubella, polio
Correct answer: B
Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received vaccines for diphtheria, pertussis, polio, and tetanus (DTaP and IPV). The correct answer is B as it includes these vaccines that are typically administered in the first year of life. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccination usually begins at 12 months of age but is not expected to be completed by this time. Choices A and C are incorrect as they include diseases that are not part of the routine immunization schedule for a 12-month-old child.
4. A nurse is supervising a student in preparing the physical environment for an interview with a client. Which action by the student is correct?
- A. Setting the room temperature at a comfortable level
- B. Placing a chair for the client across from the nurse's desk
- C. Providing seating for the client so that the client faces a strong light
- D. Setting up seating so that the client and nurse are not at eye level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When preparing the physical environment for an interview with a client, it is crucial to ensure the client's comfort. Setting the room temperature at a comfortable level is essential for the client's well-being. Additionally, providing privacy, sufficient lighting, and removing distractions are crucial factors. It is recommended to maintain a distance of around 4 to 5 feet between the client and the nurse. Seating should be arranged so that the client and nurse are at eye level to facilitate effective communication and prevent barriers. Placing a chair across from the nurse's desk may create a physical barrier, positioning the client to face a strong light can be uncomfortable and distracting, and setting up seating so that the client and nurse are not at eye level may impede effective communication.
5. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?
- A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
- B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
- C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
- D. The test results are normal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.
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