Nursing Elites

1. People who live in poverty are most likely to obtain health care from:

• A. their primary care physician (family doctor)
• B. a neighborhood clinic
• C. specialists
• D. Emergency Departments or urgent care centers

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Individuals living in poverty often face barriers to accessing regular healthcare services, leading them to utilize Emergency Departments or urgent care centers as their primary source of healthcare. These facilities provide immediate care without the need for appointments or insurance, making them more accessible to those in poverty. While primary care physicians and neighborhood clinics are essential for preventive care, individuals in poverty may have difficulty accessing these services due to financial constraints or lack of insurance. Specialists typically require referrals and may not be easily accessible to individuals without stable healthcare coverage. Therefore, Emergency Departments or urgent care centers are the most likely healthcare option for people living in poverty.

2. All of the following factors, when identified in the history of a family, are correlated with poverty except:

• A. high infant mortality rate
• B. frequent use of Emergency Departments
• C. consultation with folk healers
• D. low incidence of dental problems

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'low incidence of dental problems.' Dental problems are prevalent in families living in poverty due to the lack of preventive care and access to dental services. High infant mortality rate is closely correlated with poverty as it reflects various social determinants of health. Families in poverty may resort to frequent use of Emergency Departments due to limited access to primary care. Consulting with folk healers is also common among families in poverty as they might seek alternative and more accessible healthcare options. However, a low incidence of dental problems is less likely in families experiencing poverty.

3. During a health assessment, a nurse is assisting with gathering subjective data from a client and plans to ask the client about the medical history of the client's extended family. About which family members would the nurse ask the client?

• A. Aunts, uncles, grandparents, and cousins
• B. Foster children and their parents
• C. Wife's children from a previous marriage
• D. Wife and wife's parents

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Aunts, uncles, grandparents, and cousins.' When gathering medical history from the client's extended family, it is essential to inquire about relatives beyond the nuclear family, such as aunts, uncles, grandparents, and cousins, as they share genetic and environmental influences. Choice C, 'Wife's children from a previous marriage,' pertains to stepchildren, not extended family members. Choice B, 'Foster children and their parents,' involves individuals who are not biologically related to the client's family. Choice D, 'Wife and wife's parents,' focuses solely on immediate family members and excludes the client's extended family members, which are crucial for a comprehensive health assessment.

4. Immediately after delivery, the nurse assesses the woman's uterine fundus. At what location does the nurse expect to be able to palpate the fundus?

• A. At the level of the umbilicus
• B. Two centimeters above the umbilicus
• C. Midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
• D. In the pelvic cavity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. Immediately after delivery, the uterus is about the size of a large grapefruit or softball. The fundus can be palpated at this location but then rises to a level just above the umbilicus before sinking to the level of the umbilicus, where it remains for about 24 hours. After 24 hours, the fundus starts descending gradually. By the 10th to 14th day, the fundus is in the pelvic cavity and cannot be palpated abdominally. Choices A and B are incorrect as the fundus is not initially at the level of the umbilicus or 2 centimeters above it. Choice D is also incorrect as the fundus does not remain in the pelvic cavity immediately after delivery.

5. A nurse is preparing to test the function of cranial nerve XI. Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?

• A. Asking the client to stick out his or her tongue and watching for tremors
• B. Touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex
• C. Depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah'
• D. Placing his or her hands on the client's shoulders and asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To assess the function of cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the nurse examines the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size and strength. The correct method involves asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance to the side of the chin and to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands. Choice A, asking the client to stick out the tongue and watching for tremors, is used to assess cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). Choice C, depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah', is the technique for examining cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). Choice B, touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex, is used to evaluate cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve), not cranial nerve XI.

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