Nursing Elites

1. Which of these medications is least likely to cause tinnitus?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Lasix
• C. Gentamicin
• D. Fluoxetine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Fluoxetine. Among the options provided, Fluoxetine is the medication least likely to cause tinnitus. Gentamicin, Lasix, and Aspirin are known ototoxic medications that have a potential side effect of causing tinnitus, a ringing in the ear. Gentamicin is an antibiotic, Lasix is a diuretic, and Aspirin is a common pain reliever that can lead to tinnitus. In contrast, Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) primarily used as an antidepressant, and it has a lower risk of causing tinnitus compared to the other options.

2. While performing a physical assessment on a 6-month-old infant, the nurse observes head lag. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse perform first?

• A. Ask the parents to allow the infant to lie on his stomach to promote muscle development.
• B. Notify the physician because a developmental or neurological evaluation is indicated.
• C. Document the findings as abnormal in the nurse's notes.
• D. Explain to the parents that their child is likely to have developmental delays.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Head lag should be completely resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age indicates the need for further developmental or neurological evaluation. Laying the infant on his stomach promotes muscle development of the neck and shoulder muscles, but because of the age of this child, a referral should be the first action. The findings are abnormal for a 6-month-old infant. Significant head lag can be seen in infants with Down syndrome and hypoxia, as well as neurological and other metabolic disorders. While some of these disorders might include developmental delays, stating this to the parents without a proper evaluation can cause unnecessary distress. The priority is to identify the cause of the head lag through a medical evaluation before discussing potential outcomes with the parents.

3. What classification of drug is Diltiazem?

• A. Calcium-Channel Blocker
• B. NSAID
• C. ACE Inhibitor
• D. Beta-Blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diltiazem belongs to the class of calcium-channel blockers, not NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, or Beta-Blockers. Calcium-channel blockers like Diltiazem are used to treat conditions such as hypertension by relaxing blood vessels and increasing the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart. Therefore, the correct classification for Diltiazem is a Calcium-Channel Blocker. NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, and Beta-Blockers belong to different classes of drugs with distinct mechanisms of action and therapeutic uses, making them incorrect choices for Diltiazem.

4. A new mother is being discharged from the maternity unit and provided with information about signs and symptoms to report to her health care provider. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further information?

• A. ''I will call my nurse-midwife if I experience any redness, swelling, or tenderness in my legs.''
• B. ''My temperature needs to remain within a normal range.''
• C. ''Frequent urination and burning when I urinate are expected.''
• D. ''Feelings of pelvic fullness or pelvic pressure are a sign of a problem.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Frequent urination and burning when I urinate are expected.' This statement by the mother indicates a need for further information because these symptoms are not normal and could indicate a urinary tract infection or another issue that needs medical attention. The other choices correctly reflect signs and symptoms that should be reported to the health care provider. Redness, swelling, or tenderness in the legs can indicate a blood clot, and feelings of pelvic fullness or pressure can be signs of a problem. Monitoring temperature is also important to ensure there is no infection or other complications postpartum.

5. The nurse notes that a client in later adulthood has tremors of the hands. Based on this finding, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Ask the healthcare provider about referring the client to a neurological specialist.
• B. Obtain a prescription for a muscle relaxant.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Document the findings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a nurse observes senile tremors, such as intentional tremor of the hands in a client in later adulthood, it is important to document the findings. Senile tremors are benign and a normal age-related occurrence. Referring the client to a neurological specialist (Choice A) is unnecessary as senile tremors do not require specialized neurological intervention. Prescribing a muscle relaxant (Choice B) is not indicated since senile tremors are benign and not typically treated with muscle relaxants. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is unnecessary as senile tremors do not require urgent intervention. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to document the findings (Choice D) for the client's medical record and to establish a baseline for future assessments.

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