which of these medications has the least risk of causing tinnitus
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NCLEX-PN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions

1. Which of these medications is least likely to cause tinnitus?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Fluoxetine. Among the options provided, Fluoxetine is the medication least likely to cause tinnitus. Gentamicin, Lasix, and Aspirin are known ototoxic medications that have a potential side effect of causing tinnitus, a ringing in the ear. Gentamicin is an antibiotic, Lasix is a diuretic, and Aspirin is a common pain reliever that can lead to tinnitus. In contrast, Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) primarily used as an antidepressant, and it has a lower risk of causing tinnitus compared to the other options.

2. A nurse assisting with data collection uses the back of the hand to feel the client's skin on both arms and notes that the skin is warm. The nurse makes which determination?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To assess skin temperature, the nurse would first note the temperature of their own hands. Then, using the backs of the hands to palpate the client's skin bilaterally, warmth suggests normal circulatory status if the skin is warm and the temperature is equal bilaterally. The hands and feet may feel slightly cooler in a cool environment. Options A, C, and D are incorrect responses. A warm skin temperature does not indicate a fever, the need for additional fluids, or the need to have the blanket removed.

3. The client has been on vancomycin for three days. Which of the following symptoms is least concerning?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'headache.' While vancomycin can cause ototoxicity leading to symptoms like tinnitus, vertigo, and nausea, headaches are not typically associated with vancomycin use. Therefore, headache is the least concerning symptom in this scenario. Nausea, vertigo, and tinnitus are more likely to be related to vancomycin ototoxicity and should be closely monitored and reported. Headache is a common symptom that may not be directly linked to vancomycin use.

4. The nurse is assessing an 18-month-old. Which of these statements made by the parent or caregiver would require follow-up?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'My child has recently taken a few steps but does not seem stable when standing.' By 18 months of age, children should have taken their first steps and stand well. If a child hasn't made progress by this age, a physical therapy evaluation may be necessary. It is normal for an 18-month-old to start using a spoon to eat. However, the use of two-word phrases is not typically expected until 2 years of age. Separation anxiety is a common developmental phase that typically occurs between 6 and 18 months, so it does not require immediate follow-up. Therefore, the statement about the child not being stable when standing raises a red flag and necessitates further evaluation.

5. Why is Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness significant?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness is significant because it emphasizes the influence of popular and folk domains on health perceptions. Kleinman distinguishes between disease, representing the biomedical view, and illness, reflecting individual understanding. The model underscores that cultural factors shape the significance of popular and folk influences on health beliefs. Choice A is incorrect as the model focuses on broader cultural influences, not individual family beliefs. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the model's emphasis on various cultural aspects. Choice D is incorrect as the model's significance lies in its cultural framework rather than an educational base.

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