Nursing Elites

1. A 45-year-old client with type I diabetes is in need of support services upon discharge from a skilled rehabilitation unit. Which of the following services is an example of a skilled support service?

• A. shopping for groceries
• B. house cleaning
• C. transportation to physician's visits
• D. medication instruction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is medication instruction. This is a skilled service that requires specialized knowledge and training to provide proper guidance on medication management for a client with type I diabetes. Grocery shopping, house cleaning, and transportation services are considered unskilled services as they are typically offered by volunteer or fee-for-service agencies and do not require specialized medical expertise. Medication instruction, on the other hand, involves educating the client on how to properly take medications, understand potential side effects, and manage their medication regimen effectively, which necessitates a high level of expertise and training.

2. A healthcare professional is assisting with data collection of a client with suspected cholecystitis. Which finding does the healthcare professional expect to note if cholecystitis is present?

• A. Homan sign
• B. Murphy sign
• C. Blumberg sign
• D. McBurney sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Murphy sign. The Murphy sign is an indicator of gallbladder disease. It involves the examiner placing fingers under the liver border while the client inhales. If the gallbladder is inflamed, it descends onto the fingers, causing pain. The Homan sign is associated with pain in the calf area upon sharp dorsiflexion of the foot, indicating deep vein thrombosis. The Blumberg sign is the presence of rebound tenderness on palpation of the abdomen, indicating peritoneal irritation. The McBurney sign is indicative of appendicitis, presenting as severe pain and tenderness upon palpation at McBurney's point in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen.

3. A nurse is reviewing the findings of a physical examination documented in a client's record. Which piece of information does the nurse recognize as objective data?

• A. The client is allergic to strawberries
• B. The last menstrual period was 30 days ago
• C. The client takes acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches
• D. A 1-2-inch scar is present on the lower right portion of the abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Objective data in a physical examination are findings that the healthcare provider observes or measures directly. In this case, a 1 � 2-inch scar present on the lower right portion of the abdomen is a physical observation. Subjective data are based on what the client reports, such as allergies (Choice A), the date of the last menstrual period (Choice B), and self-reported medication use for headaches (Choice C). While these pieces of information are important for assessing the client's health, they are considered subjective data because they rely on the client's self-report rather than direct observation by the healthcare provider.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Primary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

5. A nurse helps a young adult conduct a personal lifestyle assessment. The nurse carefully reviews the assessment with the young adult for which reason?

• A. Young adults may ignore physical symptoms and postpone seeking health care
• B. Young adults are unable to afford health insurance
• C. Young adults are at risk for a serious illness
• D. Young adults are exposed to hazardous substances

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The corrected answer is A: Young adults may ignore physical symptoms and postpone seeking health care. Young adults are usually quite active, experience severe illnesses less commonly than members of older age groups, tend to ignore physical symptoms, and often postpone seeking health care. Clients in this developmental stage may benefit from a personal lifestyle assessment to identify habits that increase the risk for various chronic diseases. Choice B is incorrect because the ability to afford health insurance is not the primary reason for conducting a personal lifestyle assessment. Choice C is incorrect because young adults are not inherently at higher risk for serious illness compared to other age groups. Choice D is incorrect because exposure to hazardous substances is not the main focus when conducting a personal lifestyle assessment.

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