NCLEX-PN
Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions
1. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:
- A. administer both medications simultaneously.
- B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them.
- C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug.
- D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.
2. A client reports that he is 'talking to the voices.' The nurse observes this behavior. The nurse's next action should be:
- A. touching the client to help him return to reality
- B. leaving the client alone until reality returns
- C. asking the client to describe what is happening
- D. telling the client there are no voices
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client reports talking to voices, the nurse should engage in a gentle touch to help the client return to reality. It is important for the nurse to acknowledge the client's experience and attempt to redirect them gently. Touch can provide grounding and connection. Asking the client to describe what is happening can be overwhelming and might exacerbate the situation. Leaving the client alone may not be safe or therapeutic as the client may need support. Telling the client there are no voices denies their reality and is not helpful in managing their experience.
3. The client returns to the unit from surgery with a blood pressure of 90/50, pulse 132, respirations 30. Which action by the nurse should receive priority?
- A. Continue monitoring the vital signs
- B. Contact the physician
- C. Ask the client how they feel
- D. Ask the LPN to continue post-op care
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to contact the physician immediately due to the client's abnormal vital signs. A blood pressure of 90/50, pulse of 132, and respirations of 30 indicate instability and require prompt medical attention. Continuing to monitor vital signs, as in choice A, may lead to a delay in necessary interventions. Asking the client how they feel, as in choice C, provides subjective data and does not address the urgent need for medical intervention. Involving the LPN, as in choice D, is not appropriate in this critical situation where the client's condition is unstable and requires immediate physician assessment and intervention.
4. The client is taking rifampin 600mg po daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication?
- A. Telling the client that the medication will need to be taken with juice
- B. Telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine
- C. Telling the client to take the medication before going to bed at night
- D. Telling the client to take the medication if night sweats occur
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine. Rifampin can change the color of the urine and body fluid. Teaching the client about these changes is important as the client might think this is a complication. Answer A is incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take rifampin with juice. Answer C is incorrect because rifampin should be taken at consistent times, not necessarily before going to bed. Answer D is incorrect as rifampin should be taken regularly as prescribed, not based on symptoms like night sweats.
5. A family member of a client with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia asks about the prognosis. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that schizophrenia:
- A. affects both genders equally.
- B. is a chronic, deteriorating disease with periods of remission.
- C. is usually diagnosed in early adulthood.
- D. does not have a clear protective hormone effect delaying diagnosis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'is a chronic, deteriorating disease with periods of remission.' While choices A, C, and D contain some truths about schizophrenia, they do not directly address the prognosis aspect of the question. Schizophrenia can affect both men and women equally, is typically diagnosed in early adulthood, and does not have a known protective hormone effect that delays diagnosis. Choice B accurately reflects the chronic and fluctuating nature of the disease, which is essential for understanding its long-term course.
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