NCLEX-PN
Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions
1. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:
- A. administer both medications simultaneously.
- B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them.
- C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug.
- D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.
2. The nurse is making initial rounds on a client with a C5 fracture and crutch field tongs. Which equipment should be kept at the bedside?
- A. A pair of forceps
- B. A torque wrench
- C. A pair of wire cutters
- D. A screwdriver
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A torque wrench is essential equipment to keep at the bedside for a client with a C5 fracture and crutch field tongs. This tool is used to tighten and loosen the screws of the crutch field tongs, allowing the nurse to adjust the pressure on the screws for proper support and alignment. A pair of forceps (choice A), wire cutters (choice C), and a screwdriver (choice D) are not required for managing crutch field tongs and, therefore, are incorrect choices in this scenario.
3. Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide?
- A. a client with renal impairment
- B. a client with hypertension
- C. a client with diabetes mellitus, type II
- D. a client with renal calculi (kidney stones)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a client with diabetes mellitus, type II. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause metabolic abnormalities, including elevated blood glucose levels. This increase is linked to diuretic-induced potassium deficiency, which reduces insulin secretion, leading to higher plasma glucose levels. Thiazides are commonly used in clients with renal impairment and hypertension. Moreover, thiazides decrease calcium excretion, reducing the risk of renal calculi, so it is not contraindicated for clients with kidney stones. Therefore, clients with diabetes mellitus, type II should avoid therapy with hydrochlorothiazide due to the potential adverse effects on blood glucose levels.
4. A teenage client is admitted to the hospital because of an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which of the following organs?
- A. lungs
- B. liver
- C. kidneys
- D. adrenal glands
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acetaminophen is extensively metabolized in the liver. An acetaminophen overdose can lead to severe liver damage and even liver failure, which can be life-threatening. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Acetaminophen overdose does not typically cause life-threatening problems in the lungs, kidneys, or adrenal glands. While prolonged acetaminophen use may increase the risk of renal dysfunction, a single overdose primarily affects the liver.
5. A client reports that someone is in the room and trying to kill him. The nurse's best response is:
- A. "No one is in your room. Let's get you more medicine."?
- B. "I do not see anyone, but you seem to be very frightened."?
- C. "No one can hurt you here."?
- D. "Just tell the person to go away."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client reports hallucinations or delusions, it is crucial to respond in a non-confrontational and empathetic manner. Choice B acknowledges the client's fear without confirming the delusion, showing understanding, and providing reassurance. This response validates the client's feelings without reinforcing the false belief. The other responses in choices A, C, and D dismiss the client's feelings or perceptions, which can escalate the situation and harm the therapeutic relationship.
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