NCLEX-PN
Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions
1. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:
- A. administer both medications simultaneously.
- B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them.
- C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug.
- D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.
2. A client visits the clinic after the death of a parent. Which statement made by the client's sister signifies abnormal grieving?
- A. "My sister still has episodes of crying, and it's been 3 months since Daddy died."?
- B. "Sally seems to have forgotten the bad things that Daddy did in his lifetime."?
- C. "She really had a hard time after Daddy's funeral. She said that she had a sense of longing."?
- D. "Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Abnormal grieving is often characterized by a lack of sadness or acknowledgment of the loss. In this scenario, the statement 'Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened' indicates abnormal grieving as it suggests a lack of emotional response or denial of the death. On the other hand, choices A, B, and C all describe normal grieving reactions: crying episodes, selective memory of the deceased, and feelings of longing after the funeral. These responses are typical in the grieving process. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer, highlighting a potential abnormality in the grieving process.
3. After group therapy, the female victim of intimate partner violence confides to the nurse that she does not feel in any immediate danger. Which of the following statements about victims of domestic violence is true?
- A. Victims of domestic violence are often the best predictors of their risk of harm.
- B. Victims of domestic violence often overestimate their safety risk.
- C. Victims of domestic violence are typically in a state of denial.
- D. Victims of domestic violence know that keeping peace with their partner is the best method of preventing another attack.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Victims of domestic violence are often correct at predicting their risk of harm. It is crucial for the nurse to ensure that the client is expressing herself authentically and not downplaying any potential danger. While victims can be insightful about their risk, it's essential to involve proper authorities, such as the police, in situations of intimate partner violence to ensure safety and provide necessary support. Choice B is incorrect because victims may not necessarily overestimate their safety risk. Choice C is incorrect as not all victims are in a state of denial; some may recognize the dangers they face. Choice D is incorrect because victims may not believe that keeping peace with their partner is the best way to prevent future attacks, as each individual's situation and mindset vary.
4. The nurse is assessing the client recently returned from surgery. The nurse is aware that the best way to assess pain is to:
- A. Take the blood pressure, pulse, and temperature
- B. Ask the client to rate his pain on a scale of 0-5
- C. Watch the client's facial expression
- D. Ask the client if he is in pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best way to evaluate pain levels is to ask the client to rate his pain on a scale. This method provides a more standardized and quantifiable measure of pain compared to subjective observations like facial expressions (choice C) or direct questioning (choice D). Monitoring vital signs (choice A) can be part of pain assessment but is not as specific or reliable as asking the client to self-report pain intensity.
5. The client with cirrhosis of the liver is receiving Lactulose. The nurse is aware that the rationale for the order for Lactulose is:
- A. To lower the blood glucose level
- B. To lower the uric acid level
- C. To lower the ammonia level
- D. To lower the creatinine level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Lactulose is administered to the client with cirrhosis to lower ammonia levels, as it works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for elimination in the stool. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Lactulose does not have an effect on blood glucose, uric acid, or creatinine levels. Therefore, the correct answer is to lower the ammonia level.
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