Nursing Elites

1. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:

• A. administer both medications simultaneously.
• B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them.
• C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug.
• D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.

2. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?

• A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
• B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
• C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
• D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Explanation: When discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) after long-term use, it is crucial to taper the dosage gradually to prevent withdrawal symptoms. The correct statement indicates an understanding of this by planning a structured decrease in dosage over time. Choice A is incorrect as drinking alcohol while decreasing Xanax can be dangerous and is not recommended. Choice B is incorrect as abruptly stopping Xanax is not safe and can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as expecting to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medication does not address the need for a gradual tapering process to avoid withdrawal symptoms.

3. The chemotherapeutic DNA alkylating agents such as nitrogen mustards are effective because they:

• A. cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA.
• B. have few, if any, side effects.
• C. are used to treat multiple types of cancer.
• D. are cell-cycle-specific agents.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alkylating agents, such as nitrogen mustards, are effective chemotherapeutic agents because they cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA. This cross-linking interferes with DNA replication and transcription, leading to cell death. Choice B is incorrect because alkylating agents have numerous side effects, including alopecia, nausea, vomiting, and myelosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because while nitrogen mustards are used to treat multiple types of cancer like chronic lymphocytic leukemia, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and breast and ovarian cancer, their effectiveness is primarily due to DNA cross-linkage. Choice D is incorrect because alkylating agents are non-cell-cycle-specific agents, meaning they can act on cells in any phase of the cell cycle, not just on cells that are actively dividing.

4. The nurse is assigning staff for the day. Which assignment should be given to the nursing assistant?

• A. Taking the vital signs of the 5-month-old with bronchiolitis
• B. Taking the vital signs of the 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy
• C. Administering medication to the 2-year-old with periorbital cellulitis
• D. Adjusting the traction of the 1-year-old with a fractured tibia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate assignment for a nursing assistant is to take the vital signs of a stable patient. A 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy is considered stable, and routine vital signs monitoring can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant. Clients with bronchiolitis, periorbital cellulitis, and a fractured tibia require more specialized care and assessment by a licensed nurse. Bronchiolitis involves an airway alteration, periorbital cellulitis indicates an infection, and a fractured tibia may raise concerns of abuse. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect for delegation to a nursing assistant.

5. An adolescent female reports being raped at a party where alcohol was served. The client admits to drinking alcohol before being raped by an acquaintance. The nurse should:

• A. inform the client that because she is underage, she is not at fault for attending a party where alcohol was served.
• B. ask the client if anyone witnessed the event because the client was intoxicated and might not remember it accurately.
• C. inform the client that it was not her fault, and support the client through the physical examination.
• D. question whether the woman had consensual sex and now just feels guilty.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of rape, it is crucial to provide support and reassurance to the victim. The nurse should inform the client that it was not her fault and offer support through the physical examination. Blaming the victim, as in choice A, is inappropriate and can be damaging to the client's well-being. Choice B is not the priority at this moment; the immediate focus should be on supporting the client. Choice D is victim-blaming and implies doubt about the client's report, which is harmful and not supportive. It is essential to create a safe and supportive environment for the client to facilitate healing and recovery.

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