the physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin omnipen and gentamicin garamycin for a newly admitted client with an infection the nurse should
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions

1. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.

2. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which assessment is most crucial during the preoperative period?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial assessment during the preoperative period for a client with a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm scheduled for surgical repair is the identification of peripheral pulses. During surgery, the aorta will be clamped, potentially affecting blood circulation to the kidneys and lower extremities. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to assess peripheral pulses and monitor the return of circulation to the lower extremities postoperatively. Assessing the client's level of anxiety (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as ensuring adequate circulation. Evaluating exercise tolerance (Choice B) is not recommended preoperatively for this situation. Assessing bowel sounds and activity (Choice D) is of lesser concern compared to the critical need to monitor peripheral circulation.

3. A teenage client is admitted to the hospital because of an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which of the following organs?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acetaminophen is extensively metabolized in the liver. An acetaminophen overdose can lead to severe liver damage and even liver failure, which can be life-threatening. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Acetaminophen overdose does not typically cause life-threatening problems in the lungs, kidneys, or adrenal glands. While prolonged acetaminophen use may increase the risk of renal dysfunction, a single overdose primarily affects the liver.

4. After experiencing a traumatic event like losing a child due to poisoning, a client tells the nurse, 'I don’t want to make any new friends right now.' This is an example of which of the following indicators of stress?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: sociocultural indicator. In this situation, the client's reluctance to make new friends after experiencing a traumatic event like losing a child due to poisoning reflects a change in their social behavior, which is influenced by sociocultural factors. This response indicates how stress can impact a person's relationships and social interactions. Choice A, emotional indicator, is incorrect because the client's statement is more related to social interactions than emotional expression. Choice B, spiritual indicator, is incorrect as the given scenario does not directly involve spiritual beliefs or practices. Choice D, intellectual indicator, is also incorrect as the client's statement does not reflect cognitive or intellectual changes but rather social aspects affected by the stressful event.

5. A client arrives in the emergency room with a possible fractured femur. The nurse should anticipate an order for:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Buck's traction. This intervention is used to realign the fractured femur, reduce spasms, and alleviate pain. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is inappropriate for a femur fracture, making answer A incorrect. While ice may be used post-repair, applying it to the entire extremity is unnecessary, so answer B is wrong. An abduction pillow is typically employed following a total hip replacement, not for a fractured femur, rendering answer D incorrect.

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