Nursing Elites

1. While the client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which lab test should be evaluated?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Creatinine
• C. Blood glucose
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial as TPN solutions contain high amounts of glucose. This monitoring helps prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Evaluating hemoglobin (choice A) is not directly related to TPN administration. Creatinine (choice B) is more relevant for assessing kidney function. White blood cell count (choice D) is important for evaluating immune function and infection, but not specifically tied to TPN administration.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to assess the acoustic nerve during a neurological examination. To assess this nerve, the provider uses which technique?

• A. Uses a tuning fork
• B. Asks the client to puff out the cheeks
• C. Tests taste perception on the client's tongue
• D. Checks the client's ability to clench the teeth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Testing of cranial nerve VIII (acoustic nerve) involves assessing hearing acuity through techniques like the whispered voice test and tuning fork tests (Weber and Rinne). Using a tuning fork helps determine if sound lateralizes to one ear (Weber) and compares air conduction to bone conduction (Rinne). Asking the client to puff out the cheeks is for cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) function evaluation. Testing taste perception on the tongue assesses cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) function. Checking the ability to clench teeth assesses cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) motor function.

3. Which client can best be assigned to the newly licensed practical nurse?

• A. The client receiving chemotherapy
• B. The client post-coronary bypass
• C. The client with a TURP
• D. The client with diverticulitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best client to assign to the newly licensed nurse is the most stable client. In this case, the client with diverticulitis is the most stable among the options provided. Clients receiving chemotherapy and those post-coronary bypass require specialized care and attention, making them unsuitable for a newly licensed nurse. The client with a TURP may be at risk of bleeding, needing a nurse experienced in managing such complications. Therefore, the client with diverticulitis is the most appropriate choice for the newly licensed practical nurse.

4. A client in the cardiac step-down unit requires suctioning for excess mucous secretions. The nurse should be most careful to monitor the client for which dysrhythmia during this procedure?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Premature ventricular beats
• D. Heart block

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During suctioning, a vagal response can be triggered leading to bradycardia. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for this potential dysrhythmia. Tachycardia (Choice B) is less likely during suctioning and is not the priority. Premature ventricular beats (Choice C) and heart block (Choice D) can occur but are less common compared to bradycardia in this situation.

5. Which information obtained from the mother of a child with cerebral palsy most likely correlates to the diagnosis?

• A. She was born at 42 weeks gestation.
• B. She had meningitis when she was 6 months old.
• C. She had physiologic jaundice after delivery.
• D. She has frequent sore throats.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The diagnosis of meningitis at age 6 months correlates to a diagnosis of cerebral palsy. Cerebral palsy, a neurological disorder, is often associated with birth trauma or infections of the brain or spinal column. Answers A, C, and D are not related to the question. Gestational length (choice A) is not a direct risk factor for cerebral palsy. Physiologic jaundice (choice C) and frequent sore throats (choice D) are not typically associated with cerebral palsy.

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