Nursing Elites

1. In a brief treatment program for a client who was raped, what is a realistic short-term goal?

• A. Identify all psychosocial problems.
• B. Eliminate the client's enticing behaviors.
• C. Resolve feelings of trauma and fear.
• D. Verbalize feelings about the event.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, a realistic short-term goal for the client who was raped and starting a brief treatment program is to verbalize feelings about the event. This goal promotes the expression of emotions, which is crucial in the healing process. Identifying all psychosocial problems is too broad and not typically achievable in a brief treatment program. Eliminating the client's enticing behaviors is not a suitable short-term goal as the focus should be on emotional recovery. While resolving feelings of trauma and fear is important, verbalizing feelings about the event is a more specific and achievable goal in the short term.

2. Six hours after birth, the infant is found to have an area of swelling over the right parietal area that does not cross the suture line. The nurse should chart this finding as:

• A. A cephalohematoma
• B. Molding
• C. Subdural hematoma
• D. Caput succedaneum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, a cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is an area of bleeding outside the cranium but beneath the periosteum, typically not crossing the suture line. Answer B, molding, is the overlapping of the bones of the cranium and does not involve bleeding, making it an incorrect choice. Answer C, a subdural hematoma, involves intracranial bleeding and is typically diagnosed through imaging studies like a CAT scan or x-ray. Answer D, caput succedaneum, is characterized by edema that crosses the suture line, unlike the described swelling in this case.

3. How can the nurse best communicate to a client that he or she has been listening?

• A. restating the main feeling or thought the client has expressed
• B. making a judgment about the client's problem
• C. offering a leading question such as, 'And then what happened?'
• D. saying, 'I understand what you're saying.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best way for the nurse to communicate to a client that he or she has been listening is by restating the main feeling or thought the client has expressed. Restating helps the client validate the nurse's understanding of the communication, demonstrating active listening skills. Making judgments about the client's problem, as suggested in Choice B, can hinder effective communication by introducing bias and potential misinterpretation. Offering a leading question like in Choice C is not ideal for confirming understanding; it rather seeks more information. Choice D, simply saying 'I understand what you're saying,' may not convey active listening as effectively as restating the client's main feelings or thoughts, as it lacks the validation component present in restating.

4. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan).
• B. labetalol (Normodyne).
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
• D. thiothixene (Navane).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

5. A client is admitted to the acute care unit. Initial laboratory values reveal serum sodium of 170meq/L. What behavior changes would be most common for this client?

• A. Anger
• B. Mania
• C. Depression
• D. Psychosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Mania.' A client with a serum sodium level of 170 meq/L has hypernatremia, which can lead to manic behavior. Hypernatremia is associated with irritability, restlessness, confusion, and in severe cases, manic symptoms. Choices A, C, and D (Anger, Depression, Psychosis) are not typically associated with hypernatremia and are, therefore, incorrect in this context.

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