Nursing Elites

1. The primary organ for drug elimination is the:

• A. skin
• B. lung(s)
• C. kidney(s)
• D. liver

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the kidney(s) because most drugs are excreted in the urine, either as the parent compound or as drug metabolites. The skin is not the primary organ for drug elimination; only a few drugs are excreted in sweat. The lung(s) primarily excrete volatile gases with expiration, not drugs. While the liver metabolizes drugs, it is the kidney(s) that primarily eliminate drugs through urine, especially those with a molecular weight above 300.

2. When working with a client diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder who frequently attempts self-harm, what is the best intervention to facilitate behavior change?

• A. Constantly observing the client to prevent self-harm.
• B. Enlisting the client in defining and describing harmful behaviors.
• C. Checking on the client every 15 minutes to ensure they are not engaging in harmful behavior.
• D. Removing all items from the environment that the client could use to harm themselves.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most effective intervention when working with clients who have a history of self-harm, like the client diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder, is to involve them actively in their treatment. By enlisting the client to define and describe the harmful behaviors, the client becomes an integral part of identifying triggers and understanding the underlying causes of their actions. This approach empowers the client, promotes self-awareness, and fosters a sense of control over their behaviors. Constantly observing the client (Choice A) may lead to a lack of trust and hinder the therapeutic relationship. Checking on the client every 15 minutes (Choice C) may disrupt the client's sense of autonomy and privacy. Removing all items from the environment that could be used for self-harm (Choice D) is a temporary solution and does not address the root causes of the behavior.

3. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

4. In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse begins by asking questions that encourage the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's

• A. feelings about what has been described.
• B. thoughts about what has been described.
• C. possible solutions to the problem.
• D. intent in sharing the description.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse follows a structured approach, starting with encouraging the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's thoughts about what has been described. This step helps gather more assessment data and understand how the client interprets the situation. Asking about feelings, exploring possible solutions, and understanding the client's intent in sharing the description are more complex processes that come later in the assessment. Therefore, the correct next step after describing behaviors and situations is to inquire about the client's thoughts.

5. A client reports that he is 'talking to the voices.' The nurse observes this behavior. The nurse's next action should be:

• A. touching the client to help him return to reality
• B. leaving the client alone until reality returns
• C. asking the client to describe what is happening
• D. telling the client there are no voices

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client reports talking to voices, the nurse should engage in a gentle touch to help the client return to reality. It is important for the nurse to acknowledge the client's experience and attempt to redirect them gently. Touch can provide grounding and connection. Asking the client to describe what is happening can be overwhelming and might exacerbate the situation. Leaving the client alone may not be safe or therapeutic as the client may need support. Telling the client there are no voices denies their reality and is not helpful in managing their experience.

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