Nursing Elites

1. After the client discusses her relationship with her father, the nurse says, "Tell me whether I am understanding your relationship with your father. You feel dominated and controlled by him?"? This is an example of:

• A. verbalizing the implied.
• B. seeking consensual validation.
• C. encouraging evaluation.
• D. suggesting collaboration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Seeking consensual validation is the correct answer. Consensual validation is a technique used to check one's understanding of what the client has said. It involves confirming with the client whether the nurse's interpretation aligns with the client's feelings or thoughts. This process helps build rapport, trust, and a shared understanding between the nurse and the client. Verbalizing the implied (choice A) refers to expressing the underlying or implicit meaning of a client's statement. Encouraging evaluation (choice C) involves prompting the client to assess or judge a situation. Suggesting collaboration (choice D) entails proposing working together with the client on a shared goal, which is not the primary focus in the scenario provided.

2. In a brief treatment program, what is a realistic short-term goal for a client who was raped?

• A. Identify all psychosocial problems
• B. Eliminate the client's enticing behaviors
• C. Resolve feelings of trauma and fear
• D. Verbalize feelings about the event

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A realistic short-term goal for a client who was raped and is receiving a brief treatment program is for the client to verbalize feelings about the event. This goal focuses on helping the client express their emotions, which can be a crucial step in the healing process. Options A and C are incorrect because a brief treatment program is not typically aimed at identifying or resolving all psychosocial problems or deep-rooted trauma and fear. Option B is also incorrect as the goal is to support the client in processing their feelings rather than focusing on behaviors.

3. Incidences of child abuse appear to be higher in the African-American community and might be explained by:

• A. the increased number of single-parent households in African-American communities
• B. more single-parent households in African-American communities
• C. stricter child-rearing practices in African-American households
• D. a higher occurrence of rage in African Americans

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Child abuse is often associated with lower socioeconomic status and single-parent households due to increased stress and fewer support systems. Choice A is correct as single-parent households can face more challenges leading to a higher risk of child abuse. Choice B is the correct answer as it aligns with the risk factors associated with child abuse. Choice C is incorrect because there is no direct correlation between stricter child-rearing practices and child abuse rates. Choice D is incorrect because attributing child abuse to a higher occurrence of rage in African Americans is a stereotype and lacks evidence.

4. The client is visiting a home health client with osteoporosis. The client has a new prescription for alendronate (Fosamax). Which instruction should be given to the client?

• A. Rest in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes
• B. Avoid rapid movements after taking the medication
• C. Take the medication with water only
• D. Allow at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and taking other medications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax), instructing them to avoid rapid movements after taking the medication is crucial to prevent esophageal irritation. Resting in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes (choice A) is not necessary and can increase the risk of side effects. While taking the medication with water only (choice C) is generally recommended, the key instruction to prevent esophageal irritation is to avoid rapid movements. Allowing at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and other medications (choice D) is not specifically related to the administration of alendronate and is not the primary concern when giving instructions to the client.

5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

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