Nursing Elites

1. During discharge teaching for a client with diverticulitis on a low-roughage diet, which food should be eliminated from the diet?

• A. Roasted chicken
• B. Noodles
• C. Cooked broccoli
• D. Custard

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client with diverticulitis needs to avoid gas-forming foods that can increase abdominal discomfort. Cooked broccoli is a high-fiber food that can worsen symptoms. Roasted chicken, noodles, and custard are suitable choices for a low-roughage diet as they are less likely to cause gas formation or abdominal discomfort.

2. What type of relief behavior is Ashley using to cope with emotional conflict?

• A. acting out
• B. somatizing
• C. withdrawal
• D. problem-solving

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ashley is somatizing by experiencing emotional conflict as physical symptoms associated with severe anxiety. Somatizing involves converting emotions into physical symptoms. Acting out involves behaviors like anger, crying, and verbal abuse, not physical symptoms. Withdrawal is when one withdraws psychic energy in response to anxiety, not converting emotions into physical symptoms. Problem-solving occurs when anxiety is identified and the underlying need is addressed, not converting emotions into physical symptoms.

3. Before administering Theodur to a 10-year-old being treated for asthma, the nurse should check the:

• A. Urinary output
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Pulse
• D. Temperature

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the pulse. Theodur is a bronchodilator used in asthma treatment, and one of the side effects is tachycardia (increased heart rate). Therefore, it is essential to assess the pulse rate before administering Theodur to monitor for any potential tachycardia. Checking urinary output (Choice A), blood pressure (Choice B), and temperature (Choice D) are not directly related to the immediate side effects of bronchodilators like Theodur in this context, making them unnecessary assessments.

4. Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide?

• A. a client with renal impairment
• B. a client with hypertension
• C. a client with diabetes mellitus, type II
• D. a client with renal calculi (kidney stones)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a client with diabetes mellitus, type II. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause metabolic abnormalities, including elevated blood glucose levels. This increase is linked to diuretic-induced potassium deficiency, which reduces insulin secretion, leading to higher plasma glucose levels. Thiazides are commonly used in clients with renal impairment and hypertension. Moreover, thiazides decrease calcium excretion, reducing the risk of renal calculi, so it is not contraindicated for clients with kidney stones. Therefore, clients with diabetes mellitus, type II should avoid therapy with hydrochlorothiazide due to the potential adverse effects on blood glucose levels.

5. The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?

• A. Atropine sulfate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Prostigmin
• D. Promethazine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.

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