Nursing Elites

1. What is the profile of an individual who engages in domestic violence?

• A. from a minority culture in a low-income group.
• B. from a majority culture in a middle-income group.
• C. one who was never allowed to compete as a child.
• D. from any walk of life, race, income group, or profession.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Individuals who engage in domestic violence come from various backgrounds and cannot be stereotyped based on demographic factors like culture, income, or race. Research shows that perpetrators of domestic abuse can be found in any walk of life, regardless of their race, income group, or profession. It is important to note that the majority of domestic violence cases involve male perpetrators and female victims, but the profile of the abuser is not limited to specific demographic features. Therefore, the correct answer is that individuals who engage in domestic violence can come from any walk of life, race, income group, or profession. Choices A and B are incorrect as they wrongly associate domestic violence with specific cultural or income groups. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence to support the claim that being disallowed to compete as a child leads to domestic violence.

2. Which of the following statements by a client with spinal cord injury indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse regarding bowel management?

• A. "I should avoid eating foods that produce gas."?
• B. "I should drink more fluids like water and non-caffeinated fruit juices."?
• C. "I should set a regular schedule for bowel movements."?
• D. "I should sit in an upright position for bowel movements."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The corrected statement indicates the need for further teaching because it suggests consuming fluids like fruit juices, which can include caffeinated options that may stimulate fluid loss through increased urination. It is more appropriate to emphasize the consumption of fluids like water and non-caffeinated fruit juices for proper hydration. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate a correct understanding of bowel management by focusing on dietary considerations, establishing a regular bowel movement schedule, and using proper positioning during bowel movements. Option B is incorrect as it may lead to increased fluid loss due to caffeine content in some fruit juices.

3. The nurse wishes to decrease a client's use of denial and increase the client's expression of feelings. To do this, the nurse should:

• A. tell the client to stop using the defense mechanism of denial.
• B. positively reinforce each expression of feelings.
• C. instruct the client to express feelings.
• D. challenge the client each time denial is used.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario provided, the nurse aims to reduce the client's use of denial and encourage the expression of feelings. Positive reinforcement for each expression of feelings is an effective approach to achieve this goal. By positively reinforcing the client's expression of feelings, the nurse encourages the desired behavior, making it more likely for the client to continue sharing their emotions. This approach creates a supportive and accepting environment for the client. In contrast, telling the client to stop using denial (Choice A) may create resistance and inhibit communication by putting pressure on the client. Instructing the client to express feelings (Choice C) is less effective as it lacks the element of reinforcement that is essential for behavior modification. Challenging the client each time denial is used (Choice D) may lead to defensiveness and hinder the therapeutic relationship, making it a less favorable option.

4. A client in the cardiac step-down unit requires suctioning for excess mucous secretions. The nurse should be most careful to monitor the client for which dysrhythmia during this procedure?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Premature ventricular beats
• D. Heart block

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During suctioning, a vagal response can be triggered leading to bradycardia. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for this potential dysrhythmia. Tachycardia (Choice B) is less likely during suctioning and is not the priority. Premature ventricular beats (Choice C) and heart block (Choice D) can occur but are less common compared to bradycardia in this situation.

5. The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?

• A. Atropine sulfate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Prostigmin
• D. Promethazine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.

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