the physician has ordered a culture for the client with suspected gonorrhea the nurse should obtain which type of culture
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Practice Questions 2024

1. The physician has ordered a culture for the client with suspected gonorrhea. The nurse should obtain which type of culture?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A culture for gonorrhea is taken from the genital secretions as gonorrhea primarily affects the genital area. The culture is incubated in a warm environment to promote the growth of Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacterium causing gonorrhea. Genital secretions provide a direct sample from the site of infection, increasing the accuracy of diagnosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not suitable specimens for diagnosing gonorrhea. Blood cultures are used to detect bloodstream infections, nasopharyngeal secretions are collected for respiratory infections, and stool cultures are done to identify gastrointestinal infections, none of which are related to gonorrhea.

2. The client with diabetes is preparing for discharge. During discharge teaching, the nurse assesses the client's ability to care for himself. Which statement made by the client would indicate a need for follow-up after discharge?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with diabetes who has trouble seeing would require follow-up after discharge. The lack of visual acuity for the client preparing and injecting insulin might require help. Answers A, C, and D will not prevent the client from being able to care for himself and are incorrect. Living alone (Choice A) does not necessarily indicate a need for follow-up unless there are specific concerns. Having a cat at home (Choice C) and driving to the doctor (Choice D) are not direct indicators of the client's ability to care for himself.

3. A complication of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is the development of cholestasis. What is this condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cholestasis due to TPN administration is an intrahepatic process that interrupts the normal flow of bile. It is characterized by a reduction or stoppage of bile flow. Choice A, an inflammatory process of the extrahepatic bile ducts, refers to cholangitis, not cholestasis. Choice C, an inflammation of the gallbladder, describes cholecystitis, a different condition. Choice D, the formation of gallstones, is not correct as cholestasis is about the flow of bile, not the formation of gallstones.

4. Which of the following roommates would be most suitable for the client with myasthenia gravis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most suitable roommate for the client with myasthenia gravis is the client with hypothyroidism because they are quiet. A client with Crohn's disease (choice B) would be up to the bathroom frequently due to gastrointestinal issues, which could disturb the roommate with myasthenia gravis. A client with pyelonephritis (choice C) suffering from a kidney infection will need to urinate frequently, causing disturbances. A client with bronchitis (choice D) will be coughing, potentially disrupting the rest and quiet environment needed by a roommate with myasthenia gravis to manage their symptoms effectively.

5. Tricyclics (Antidepressants) can sometimes have which of the following adverse effects on patients diagnosed with depression?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fainting.' Tricyclic antidepressants can cause fainting and hypotension as adverse effects. Shortness of breath (Choice A) is not a common side effect of tricyclics. Large intestine ulcers (Choice C) are not typically associated with tricyclic antidepressants. Distal muscular weakness (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of tricyclics but is commonly associated with other medications.

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