NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. The physician has ordered a culture for the client with suspected gonorrhea. The nurse should obtain which type of culture?
- A. Blood
- B. Nasopharyngeal secretions
- C. Stool
- D. Genital secretions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A culture for gonorrhea is taken from the genital secretions as gonorrhea primarily affects the genital area. The culture is incubated in a warm environment to promote the growth of Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacterium causing gonorrhea. Genital secretions provide a direct sample from the site of infection, increasing the accuracy of diagnosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not suitable specimens for diagnosing gonorrhea. Blood cultures are used to detect bloodstream infections, nasopharyngeal secretions are collected for respiratory infections, and stool cultures are done to identify gastrointestinal infections, none of which are related to gonorrhea.
2. A successful resolution of the nursing diagnosis Negative Self-Concept (related to unrealistic self-expectations) is when the client can:
- A. report a positive self-concept.
- B. identify negative thoughts.
- C. recognize positive thoughts.
- D. give one positive cue with each negative cue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'report a positive self-concept.' The problem statement is Negative Self-Concept, so the goal is for the client to achieve a positive self-concept. This involves helping the client recognize their worth and strengths. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the resolution of Negative Self-Concept. Identifying negative thoughts (B) is a step towards improvement but does not represent a successful resolution. Recognizing positive thoughts (C) is positive but not the primary goal in addressing Negative Self-Concept. 'Give one positive cue with each negative cue' (D) is not as comprehensive as achieving an overall positive self-concept.
3. The client with a myocardial infarction comes to the nurse's station stating that he is ready to go home because there is nothing wrong with him. Which defense mechanism is the client using?
- A. Rationalization
- B. Denial
- C. Projection
- D. Conversion reaction
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial. The client displaying denial refuses to acknowledge the reality of having a myocardial infarction. Rationalization (choice A) involves making excuses for behavior, not denying a condition. Projection (choice C) is attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, not denying an illness. Conversion reaction (choice D) is converting psychological distress into physical symptoms, which is not evident in this scenario. Therefore, denial is the defense mechanism being used in this situation.
4. A client is taking hydrocodone (Vicodin) for chronic back pain. The client has required an increase in the dose and asks whether this means he is addicted to Vicodin. The nurse should base her reply on the knowledge that:
- A. the client's body has developed tolerance, requiring more drug to produce the same effect.
- B. the client is preoccupied with getting the drug and is experiencing loss of control, indicating drug dependence.
- C. addiction is the term used to describe physical dependence with withdrawal symptoms and tolerance.
- D. the client has a dual diagnosis of substance abuse and chronic back pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Drug tolerance is characterized by the ability to ingest a larger dose without adverse effects and decreased sensitivity to the substance. In this scenario, the client needing an increased dose of hydrocodone to achieve the same pain relief indicates tolerance developing, not addiction. Choice B is incorrect as it describes drug dependence, where the individual is preoccupied with the drug and has a loss of control. Choice C is incorrect because addiction involves psychological behaviors related to substance use, not just physical dependence with withdrawal symptoms and tolerance. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to a dual diagnosis, which is the coexistence of substance abuse and psychiatric disorders, not the development of tolerance to a drug.
5. Which intervention should the nurse take first to assist a woman who states that she feels incompetent as the mother of a teenage daughter?
- A. Recommend that she discipline her daughter more strictly and consistently.
- B. Make a list of things she can do to help improve her husband.
- C. Assist the mother to identify what she believes is preventing her success and what she can do to improve.
- D. Explore with the mother what the daughter can do to improve her behavior.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority intervention for a mother who feels incompetent in parenting a teenage daughter is to assist her in identifying the factors contributing to her feelings of inadequacy and help her develop better coping and mothering skills. This approach focuses on addressing the mother's emotional needs and empowering her to improve her situation. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on the daughter's discipline, which may not be the root cause of the mother's feelings. Option B is irrelevant as it focuses on improving her husband, not her parenting skills. Option D is incorrect as it shifts the focus solely to the daughter's behavior, neglecting the mother's emotional needs and self-improvement.
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