NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. The physician has ordered a culture for the client with suspected gonorrhea. The nurse should obtain which type of culture?
- A. Blood
- B. Nasopharyngeal secretions
- C. Stool
- D. Genital secretions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A culture for gonorrhea is taken from the genital secretions as gonorrhea primarily affects the genital area. The culture is incubated in a warm environment to promote the growth of Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacterium causing gonorrhea. Genital secretions provide a direct sample from the site of infection, increasing the accuracy of diagnosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not suitable specimens for diagnosing gonorrhea. Blood cultures are used to detect bloodstream infections, nasopharyngeal secretions are collected for respiratory infections, and stool cultures are done to identify gastrointestinal infections, none of which are related to gonorrhea.
2. A client with cancer is admitted to the oncology unit. Stat lab values reveal Hgb 12.6, WBC 6500, K+ 1.9, uric acid 7.0, Na+ 136, and platelets 178,000. The nurse evaluates that the client is experiencing which of the following?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Myelosuppression
- D. Leukocytosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypokalemia.' The potassium level of 1.9 indicates low potassium levels, a condition known as hypokalemia. The other lab values are within normal ranges: Hgb 12.6, WBC 6500, uric acid 7.0, Na+ 136, and platelets 178,000. Hypernatremia (choice A) refers to high sodium levels, which are not present in this case. Myelosuppression (choice C) is a decrease in bone marrow activity, which is not indicated by the lab values provided. Leukocytosis (choice D) is an increase in white blood cells, which is also not present based on the given values.
3. When medications have an additive, synergistic, or antagonistic effect on a tissue, a ________ reaction has occurred.
- A. pharmaceutical
- B. pharmacodynamic
- C. pharmacokinetic
- D. drug incompatibility
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'pharmacodynamic.' Pharmacodynamics pertain to the effect of a drug on receptors, explaining how drugs affect tissues. Pharmaceutical reactions refer to chemical reactions between drugs before administration or absorption, not their effect on tissues. Pharmacokinetic reactions involve how the body affects the drug, not the tissue. Drug incompatibilities are essentially pharmaceutical reactions, not the specific effects on tissues seen in pharmacodynamic reactions.
4. The nurse is developing a care plan for a client with severe anxiety. An appropriate outcome for the client is that within 4 days the client should:
- A. Have decreased anxiety.
- B. Talk to the nurse for 10 minutes.
- C. Sit quietly for 30 minutes.
- D. Develop an adaptive coping mechanism.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When developing outcome criteria for a client with severe anxiety, it is crucial for the goals to be specific, measurable, and realistic. In this scenario, the most appropriate outcome is for the client to talk to the nurse for 10 minutes within 4 days. This goal is specific (talking for a defined duration), measurable (10 minutes), and realistic given the client's condition. Expecting a severely anxious client to sit quietly for 30 minutes is not realistic and may even exacerbate their anxiety. While developing an adaptive coping mechanism is important, it is a broader long-term goal and may not be achievable within the specified timeframe. Having decreased anxiety is a desirable outcome, but it lacks specificity and measurability, making it less suitable as an immediate goal.
5. In the United States, several definitions of death are currently being used. The definition that uses apnea testing and pupillary responses to light is termed:
- A. whole brain death.
- B. heart-lung death.
- C. circulatory death.
- D. higher brain death.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'whole brain death.' Most protocols for determining whole brain death require two separate clinical examinations, including the induction of painful stimuli, pupillary responses to light, oculovestibular testing, and apnea testing. This comprehensive approach ensures that all functions of the brain, including the brainstem, are evaluated to confirm the absence of brain function. Choices B and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the specific tests required for determining whole brain death. Choice C, 'circulatory death,' does not involve the evaluation of brain function and is not a current definition of death in the United States.
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