Nursing Elites

1. A 12-year-old male is brought to his primary care provider to determine whether sexual abuse has occurred. The mother states, 'Because there is no permanent physical damage, he does not need any more treatment.' The nurse's response should be based on which of the following pieces of information?

• A. Male victims of sexual abuse can have long-term psychological problems.
• B. Survivors of male sexual abuse might become confused about their sexual identity.
• C. Not all male sex abuse survivors grow up to abuse other children.
• D. The needs of sexually abused children can vary based on gender and individual circumstances.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Male children are sexually abused nearly as often as female children. Perpetrators are usually men but can be women. Needs of male children who have been sexually abused might be different from the needs of female survivors. Male survivors might respond in anger, question their sexuality, use alcohol and other drugs, and might try to prove their masculinity by performing daring acts. Choice A is incorrect because male victims of sexual abuse can indeed have long-term psychological problems. Choice C is incorrect as not all male sex abuse survivors grow up to abuse other children. Choice D is incorrect as the needs of sexually abused children can vary based on gender and individual circumstances.

2. The doctor orders 2% nitroglycerin ointment in a 1-inch dose every 12 hours. Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment includes:

• A. Rotating application sites
• B. Limiting applications to the chest
• C. Rubbing it into the skin
• D. Covering it with a thin paper dressing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment involves rotating application sites to prevent skin irritation. It should be applied to the back and upper arms, not restricted to the chest, making option B incorrect. Rubbing it into the skin, as indicated in option C, is not recommended for nitroglycerin ointment as it can lead to faster absorption and potential side effects. The correct way is to cover it with a thin paper dressing, not gauze as mentioned in option D, to ensure proper absorption and prevent the medication from evaporating too quickly.

3. The client is taking rifampin 600mg po daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication?

• A. Telling the client that the medication will need to be taken with juice
• B. Telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine
• C. Telling the client to take the medication before going to bed at night
• D. Telling the client to take the medication if night sweats occur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine. Rifampin can change the color of the urine and body fluid. Teaching the client about these changes is important as the client might think this is a complication. Answer A is incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take rifampin with juice. Answer C is incorrect because rifampin should be taken at consistent times, not necessarily before going to bed. Answer D is incorrect as rifampin should be taken regularly as prescribed, not based on symptoms like night sweats.

4. A client receiving preoperative instructions asks questions repeatedly about when to stop eating the night before the procedure. The nurse tries to refocus the client. The nurse notes that the client is frequently startled by noises in the hall. Assessment reveals rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, and elevated blood pressure. The client admits to feeling nervous and having trouble sleeping. Based on the assessment, the nurse documents that the client has:

• A. mild anxiety.
• B. moderate anxiety.
• C. severe anxiety.
• D. a panic attack.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'severe anxiety.' In severe anxiety, a person focuses on small or scattered details and is unable to solve problems. The client's symptoms of rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, feeling nervous, and having trouble sleeping indicate severe anxiety. Mild anxiety enhances the ability to learn and solve problems, while moderate anxiety narrows the perceptual field but allows the client to notice things brought to their attention. During a panic attack, a person is disorganized, hyperactive, or unable to speak or act, which is not the case in this scenario.

5. When working with a client diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder who frequently attempts self-harm, what is the best intervention to facilitate behavior change?

• A. Constantly observing the client to prevent self-harm.
• B. Enlisting the client in defining and describing harmful behaviors.
• C. Checking on the client every 15 minutes to ensure they are not engaging in harmful behavior.
• D. Removing all items from the environment that the client could use to harm themselves.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most effective intervention when working with clients who have a history of self-harm, like the client diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder, is to involve them actively in their treatment. By enlisting the client to define and describe the harmful behaviors, the client becomes an integral part of identifying triggers and understanding the underlying causes of their actions. This approach empowers the client, promotes self-awareness, and fosters a sense of control over their behaviors. Constantly observing the client (Choice A) may lead to a lack of trust and hinder the therapeutic relationship. Checking on the client every 15 minutes (Choice C) may disrupt the client's sense of autonomy and privacy. Removing all items from the environment that could be used for self-harm (Choice D) is a temporary solution and does not address the root causes of the behavior.

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