Nursing Elites

1. Due to a high census, it has been necessary for a number of clients to be transferred to other units within the hospital. Which client should be transferred to the postpartum unit?

• A. A 66-year-old female with gastroenteritis
• B. A 40-year-old female with a hysterectomy
• C. A 27-year-old male with severe depression
• D. A 28-year-old male with ulcerative colitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best client to transfer to the postpartum unit is the 40-year-old female with a hysterectomy. The nurses on the postpartum unit will be knowledgeable about postoperative care and can manage any complications related to the surgery. Choices A and D would be more appropriately cared for on a medical-surgical unit due to their conditions. Choice C should be transferred to a psychiatric unit for specialized care related to severe depression.

2. When assisting a client in gaining insight into anxiety, what should the nurse do?

• A. Help the client relate anxiety to specific triggers.
• B. Ask the client to describe events that precede increased anxiety.
• C. Instruct the client to practice relaxation techniques.
• D. Confront the client's resistive behavior.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To assist a client in gaining insight into anxiety, it is crucial to identify triggers or events that lead to increased anxiety. This approach helps the client recognize causal factors contributing to their anxiety, promoting self-awareness and understanding. Choice A is incorrect because it should focus on triggers rather than specific behaviors. Choice C is incorrect as it emphasizes managing anxiety through relaxation techniques rather than understanding its roots. Choice D is incorrect as it addresses resistive behavior rather than exploring the causes of anxiety.

3. The nurse is assigning staff for the day. Which assignment should be given to the nursing assistant?

• A. Taking the vital signs of the 5-month-old with bronchiolitis
• B. Taking the vital signs of the 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy
• C. Administering medication to the 2-year-old with periorbital cellulitis
• D. Adjusting the traction of the 1-year-old with a fractured tibia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate assignment for a nursing assistant is to take the vital signs of a stable patient. A 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy is considered stable, and routine vital signs monitoring can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant. Clients with bronchiolitis, periorbital cellulitis, and a fractured tibia require more specialized care and assessment by a licensed nurse. Bronchiolitis involves an airway alteration, periorbital cellulitis indicates an infection, and a fractured tibia may raise concerns of abuse. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect for delegation to a nursing assistant.

4. A man expresses surprise that his wife has become very withdrawn during hospitalization for pneumonia. Which response helps the husband understand how some people cope with hospitalization?

• A. "Hospitalization might cause a crisis. Has your wife had to cope with problems before this?"?
• B. "Some people react that way. She will be more talkative when she feels better."?
• C. "Your wife might be feeling concern that she cannot fulfill her normal roles."?
• D. "This is typical behavior for someone who is as ill as your wife."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response acknowledges that hospitalization can lead to a crisis for both patients and their families. By asking if the wife has coped with problems before, it opens up a dialogue about her coping mechanisms and past experiences. This can help the husband understand his wife's current behavior better and provide valuable insights. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the potential crisis that hospitalization can cause or inquire about the wife's coping strategies, making them less effective responses.

5. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

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