Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to test cranial nerve I. Which item does the nurse obtain to test this nerve?

• A. Coffee
• B. A tuning fork
• C. A wisp of cotton
• D. An ophthalmoscope

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To assess the function of cranial nerve I (olfactory nerve), the nurse uses a wisp of cotton to test the sense of smell in a client who reports loss of smell. The nurse assesses the patency of the client's nostrils by occluding one nostril at a time and asking the client to sniff. Next, with the client's eyes closed, the nurse occludes one nostril and presents a non-noxious aromatic substance such as coffee, toothpaste, orange, vanilla, soap, or peppermint. Choice A, 'Coffee,' is incorrect because it is used to present non-noxious aromatic substances to assess cranial nerve I. Choice B, 'A tuning fork,' is used to assess the function of cranial nerve VIII (acoustic nerve). Choice D, 'An ophthalmoscope,' is used to assess the internal structures of the eye, not cranial nerve I.

2. A nurse assisting with data collection is preparing to auscultate the client's bowel sounds. The client tells the nurse that he ate lunch just 45 minutes ago. On the basis of this information, which finding does the nurse expect to note?

• A. Gurgling sounds
• B. Hypoactive sounds
• C. Low-pitched sounds
• D. An absence of sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bowel sounds are high-pitched, gurgling, cascading sounds that occur irregularly between five and 30 times a minute. In this scenario, since the client ate lunch just 45 minutes ago, the nurse would expect to note gurgling sounds as normal bowel activity. Hypoactive sounds (low-pitched) or an absence of sounds are usually associated with conditions such as abdominal surgery or inflammation of the peritoneum, not with recent food intake. Therefore, the correct answer is gurgling sounds, indicating normal bowel activity following a recent meal.

3. When reviewing a client's medical notes to confirm pregnancy, a nurse should look for which finding to determine that pregnancy is confirmed?

• A. Amenorrhea
• B. Thinning of the cervix
• C. Palpable fetal movement
• D. Positive result on a home urine test for pregnancy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To confirm pregnancy, the presence of palpable fetal movement is a positive indicator. Palpable fetal movement is a certain sign of pregnancy, known as a fetal movement felt by the examiner. Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign of pregnancy as it is reported by the woman but is not confirmatory. Thinning of the cervix (Hegar sign) is a probable sign of pregnancy, which is not confirmatory. A positive result on a home urine test for pregnancy is also a probable indicator. However, a positive pregnancy test result can sometimes yield false-positive results due to various factors like medication, recent pregnancy, or errors in reading.

4. A client is pregnant for the sixth time. She tells the nurse that she has had three elective first-trimester abortions and that she has a son who was born at 40 weeks' gestation and a daughter who was born at 36 weeks' gestation. In calculating the gravidity and para (parity), the nurse determines that the client is:

• A. Gravida 2, para 6
• B. Gravida 6, para 2
• C. Gravida 3, para 6
• D. Gravida 2, para 2

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The term gravida refers to the number of pregnancies, of any duration, that a woman has had. Parity (para) refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery. Therefore, this client is gravida 6 (pregnant for the sixth time), para 2 (has a son and a daughter). In this case, the correct answer is Gravida 6, para 2. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the information provided. Pregnancy outcomes are often described using the GTPAL acronym: gravida (G), term births (T), preterm births (P), abortions (A), and live births (L). Applying this to the client's history, the GTPAL would be G = 6, T = 1, P = 1, A = 3, L = 2, which further confirms the correct answer.

5. During a health assessment, a nurse is assisting with gathering subjective data from a client and plans to ask the client about the medical history of the client's extended family. About which family members would the nurse ask the client?

• A. Aunts, uncles, grandparents, and cousins
• B. Foster children and their parents
• C. Wife's children from a previous marriage
• D. Wife and wife's parents

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Aunts, uncles, grandparents, and cousins.' When gathering medical history from the client's extended family, it is essential to inquire about relatives beyond the nuclear family, such as aunts, uncles, grandparents, and cousins, as they share genetic and environmental influences. Choice C, 'Wife's children from a previous marriage,' pertains to stepchildren, not extended family members. Choice B, 'Foster children and their parents,' involves individuals who are not biologically related to the client's family. Choice D, 'Wife and wife's parents,' focuses solely on immediate family members and excludes the client's extended family members, which are crucial for a comprehensive health assessment.

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