the client has an order for an iv piggyback of ceftriaxone 750mg in 50ml d5w to run over 30 minutes what is the appropriate drip rate
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions

1. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.

2. Which of the following would likely not impede learning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a client who states they are not interested. While lack of interest can hinder learning motivation, it is not a physical or mental barrier that directly impacts the learning process. On the other hand, a client who took Ambien� an hour ago may experience drowsiness or impaired cognitive function, affecting their ability to learn. A bipolar client in a manic phase may exhibit symptoms such as racing thoughts, distractibility, and impulsivity, making it challenging for them to focus and engage in the learning process. A client with dysphagia may have difficulty swallowing, which can interfere with their ability to take oral medications or participate in activities that involve swallowing.

3. When assisting the physician in performing transillumination of a client's scrotum, how should the nurse prepare for this procedure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing for transillumination of the scrotum, the nurse should obtain a flashlight and darken the room. This is done to allow the strong flashlight to be shined from behind the scrotal contents. Normal scrotal contents do not appear on transillumination. Instructing the client to drink fluids or to take deep breaths and bear down is not part of the preparation for this procedure. Additionally, it is not necessary to inform the client that the procedure is uncomfortable as transillumination is a painless procedure.

4. When a 16-year-old girl visits the women's health clinic to obtain information about birth control because she is sexually active and wants to avoid pregnancy, what should the nurse do first when interviewing the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client seeks information about birth control, it is essential for the nurse to first assess the client's existing knowledge on the subject. This enables the nurse to provide tailored information that complements what the client already knows, facilitating better understanding and decision-making. Providing written material is a helpful educational tool but should not be the first intervention. Offering specific advice on birth control methods based on age and lifestyle limits the client's autonomy and decision-making process. Mentioning the client's boyfriend as a requirement for discussing birth control is inappropriate and nontherapeutic, as the client should be able to seek information independently.

5. An assessment of the skull of a normal 10-month-old baby should identify which of the following?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the closure of the posterior fontanel. By 10 months of age, the posterior fontanel should be closed. The anterior fontanel typically closes around 12-18 months of age. Overlapping of cranial bones is not a normal finding and may indicate craniosynostosis, a condition where the sutures close too early. Ossification of the sutures is also not a normal finding in a 10-month-old baby as the sutures should remain open to allow for the growth of the skull.

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