Nursing Elites

1. A nurse discharge planner is preparing a client for discharge from an acute care setting. The nurse assesses that skilled home care services are clinically indicated. This assessment is based on all of the following indicators except:

• A. the client has been admitted to the hospital three times in the last 2 months.
• B. the client has a Foley catheter.
• C. the client's family is available to care for him 24 hours a day.
• D. the client is ordered to continue IV antibiotics 5 days post discharge.

Correct answer: V

Rationale: Family availability to provide care and assistance is not an indicator for skilled home care services. In fact, the nurse might see an opportunity for family education to meet the client's needs so that less community support is needed. This should be discussed and negotiated with the family. Frequent hospital readmissions indicate that the client has not been able to manage either due to condition instability or lack of care needs being met, which is a red flag for home care services to monitor and meet those needs appropriately. A Foley catheter requires home health care due to infection potential and care requirements. IV antibiotics also necessitate home care for maintaining line patency and assessing the site.

2. Which action by the nurse represents the ethical principle of benevolence?

• A. The nurse administers an immunization to a child even though it may cause discomfort
• B. The nurse follows a plan of care designed to relieve pain in a client with cancer
• C. The nurse provides equal amounts of care to all assigned clients on the basis of illness acuity
• D. The nurse upholds a client's decision to refuse chemotherapy for lung cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Benevolence is taking action to help others. In this scenario, administering an immunization to a child, even though it may cause discomfort, aligns with the principle of benevolence as the benefits of protection from disease outweigh the temporary discomfort. Fidelity refers to keeping promises made to clients, families, and other healthcare professionals. Autonomy is a person's independence, and respecting autonomy means agreeing to respect an individual's right to determine their course of action. Justice refers to fairness and equity, including the fair allocation of resources, such as nursing care for all clients. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains more to the ethical principle of beneficence rather than benevolence, which focuses on doing good for others without an expectation of something in return. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not directly align with the principle of benevolence.

3. A nurse enters a client's room to administer a medication that has been prescribed by the health care provider. The client asks the nurse about the medication. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. 'I know that it's for fluid buildup, and I think you've taken it before.''
• B. 'It's called furosemide (Lasix), and it will promote urination and rid your body of the excess fluid. It can cause an alteration in electrolyte levels, so we'll need to increase the potassium in your diet.''
• C. 'It's to help get rid of the swelling in your feet.''
• D. ''You need to discuss this medication with your health care provider.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client has the right to be informed of the medication name, purpose, action, and potential undesirable effects of a prescribed medication. The nurse should provide adequate information to the client. Choice B is the correct answer as it includes the medication name, its purpose (promoting urination and eliminating excess fluid), and a potential side effect (alteration in electrolyte levels) with a plan for managing it (increasing potassium in the diet). This response demonstrates thorough and complete information. Choice A provides some information but lacks details on potential side effects and dietary adjustments. Choice C is vague and does not provide specific details about the medication. Choice D deflects the client's question and does not fulfill the client's right to information.

4. How far should the enema tube be inserted for a client to have a flatus-reducing enema?

• A. 4 inches.
• B. 6 inches.
• C. 2 inches.
• D. 8 inches.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to insert the enema tube 4 inches. Enema tubing must be passed beyond the internal sphincter, which is typically around 4 inches in an adult. Inserting the tube only 2 inches is not far enough to reach this point. On the other hand, inserting the tube 6 or 8 inches is too far and might cause trauma to the bowel, which is unnecessary for a flatus-reducing enema. Therefore, the correct insertion depth of the enema tube is crucial to ensure effectiveness and safety in providing the intended treatment.

5. The nurse should teach parents of small children that the most common type of first-degree burn is:

• A. scalding from hot bath water or spills.
• B. contact with hot surfaces such as stoves and fireplaces.
• C. contact with flammable liquids or gases resulting in flash burns.
• D. sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure.' First-degree burns primarily affect the outer layer of the skin and are commonly caused by overexposure to the sun without adequate protection, making it a significant concern for parents of small children. Choices A, B, and C describe other types of burns (scalding, contact with hot surfaces, and contact with flammable substances) that can cause more severe burns beyond the first-degree level. It is crucial for parents to be educated about sun safety measures to prevent sunburns in children.

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