Nursing Elites

1. A licensed practical nurse arrives at work at the long-term care center and is immediately faced with several activities that require attention. Which activity will the nurse attend to first?

• A. Task assignments for the day
• B. Stocking the medication closet
• C. A phone message from employee health services
• D. A phone message from a client's wife

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority should be attending to task assignments for the day. This ensures that client care can begin promptly and efficiently. Stocking the medication closet is important but can be done after ensuring task assignments are clear. Phone messages from employee health services and a client's wife, although important, can be addressed after organizing the staff for client care.

2. A nurse is reading the nurse practice act for the state in which she is employed. The nurse uses the information in this act for which purpose?

• A. To understand hospital and long-term care facility policies
• B. To know the scope of practice for nurses
• C. To identify health care policies in her state
• D. To be aware of the role of the licensed nurse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'To be aware of the role of the licensed nurse.' Nurse practice acts outline the scope of practice for nurses, defining what constitutes nursing practice and the role of licensed nurses. Choice A is incorrect because hospital and long-term care facility policies are institution-specific and not typically covered in the nurse practice act. Choice B is incorrect as the scope of practice for nurses is a part of the nurse practice act, but it's not the sole purpose for a nurse to refer to it. Choice C is incorrect as health care policies in a state are governed by other legislative acts, not the nurse practice act.

3. An LPN is working on the care plan for a client with diabetes mellitus. Which of these outcomes would be the most appropriate?

• A. The client will maintain a blood glucose level within the normal range of 70-110 (per facility policy) throughout my shift.
• B. The client will maintain a blood glucose level within normal range limits today.
• C. The client will maintain a blood glucose level within the normal range of 70-110 (per facility policy) throughout my shift.
• D. The client will maintain a blood glucose level within normal limits throughout my shift.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The client will maintain a blood glucose level within the normal range of 70-110 (per facility policy) throughout my shift.' This outcome is specific, measurable, and aligns with the goal of managing diabetes mellitus. Choice A is correct because it provides a clear target range (70-110) and includes adherence to facility policy, making it precise and goal-oriented. Choice B lacks specificity on the timeframe, and Choice D is vague in defining the target blood glucose range. In nursing care plans, outcomes should be well-defined, achievable, and measurable to effectively monitor the client's progress in managing their condition.

4. Why is padding on a restraint helpful?

• A. To distribute pressure so that bony prominences do not receive pressure when a client pulls against the restraints.
• B. To help the client feel more secure.
• C. To keep infection and wounds at bay.
• D. To keep restraints in place.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Padding on a restraint helps distribute pressure to prevent bony prominences from bearing excessive pressure when a client pulls against the restraints. This is crucial to avoid tissue damage caused by ischemia. The correct answer focuses on the physiological benefit of padding in reducing pressure on vulnerable areas to prevent harm. Choice B is incorrect as the primary purpose of padding is not emotional comfort but preventing physical harm. Choice C is incorrect as while padding can indirectly help prevent infection and wounds by reducing pressure, its primary function is pressure distribution. Choice D is incorrect as the main purpose of padding is not to keep the restraints in place but to protect the client's skin and tissues from pressure-related injuries.

5. Under what circumstances can an individual receive medical care without giving informed consent?

• A. when the durable power of attorney for health care is not available
• B. in an emergency, life-or-death situation
• C. when the physician is not available for discussion with the client
• D. when they (clients) are not able to speak for themselves

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An individual may receive medical care without giving informed consent in an emergency, life-or-death situation. This exception allows healthcare providers to provide immediate treatment to save a person's life or prevent serious harm when time is of the essence. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in all other situations, informed consent is required. The durable power of attorney for health care should be involved if available, the physician should have a discussion with the client in non-life-threatening situations, and in cases where clients are unable to speak for themselves, their designated representative or responsible party should be involved in the consent process.

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