Nursing Elites

1. A licensed practical nurse arrives at work at the long-term care center and is immediately faced with several activities that require attention. Which activity will the nurse attend to first?

• A. Task assignments for the day
• B. Stocking the medication closet
• C. A phone message from employee health services
• D. A phone message from a client's wife

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority should be attending to task assignments for the day. This ensures that client care can begin promptly and efficiently. Stocking the medication closet is important but can be done after ensuring task assignments are clear. Phone messages from employee health services and a client's wife, although important, can be addressed after organizing the staff for client care.

2. Which of these statements from the caregiver of a palliative care client indicates a proper understanding?

• A. This treatment plan usually indicates a prognosis of less than 6 months.
• B. We will need to stay in the hospital to receive this level of care.
• C. The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.
• D. The medications to treat the underlying disease will be continued.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.' This statement reflects a proper understanding of palliative care, which focuses on improving the patient's quality of life and providing comfort. It does not necessarily mean a prognosis of less than 6 months or require hospitalization. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care can be provided regardless of the prognosis. Choice B is wrong as palliative care can be administered in various settings, not just hospitals. Choice D is inaccurate as palliative care aims to improve symptoms and quality of life, so medications may be adjusted but not necessarily stopped.

3. A nurse who works in a medical care unit is told that she must float to the intensive care unit because of a short-staffing problem on that unit. The nurse reports to the unit and is assigned to three clients. The nurse is angry with the assignment because she believes that the assignment is more difficult than the assignment delegated to other nurses on the unit and because the intensive care unit nurses are each assigned only one client. The nurse should most appropriately take which action?

• A. Refuse to do the assignment
• B. Tell the nurse manager to call the nursing supervisor
• C. Return to the medical care unit and discuss the assignment with the nurse manager on that unit
• D. Ask the nurse manager of the intensive care unit to discuss the assignment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse feeling that the assignment is more difficult than what other nurses received should approach the nurse manager of the intensive care unit to discuss the assignment. By doing so, the nurse can seek clarification on the rationale for the assignment or confirm if it is genuinely more challenging. Refusing the assignment is not appropriate as it could impact patient care. Returning to the medical care unit would be considered client abandonment and does not directly address the conflict at hand. Instructing the nurse manager to involve the nursing supervisor is an aggressive approach that does not directly resolve the issue.

4. Which of the following symptoms is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia in the client with a spinal cord injury?

• A. sudden onset of headache
• B. flushed face
• C. hypotension
• D. nasal congestion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by a sudden onset of symptoms due to an overactive autonomic nervous system. Hypotension is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia; instead, hypertension is a hallmark sign. Therefore, hypotension is the correct answer. Flushed face, sudden onset of headache, and nasal congestion are classic symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia caused by a noxious stimulus below the level of the spinal cord injury. These symptoms result from the body's attempt to regulate blood pressure when the normal feedback loop is interrupted.

5. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:

• A. Placenta previa.
• B. Eclampsia.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Uterine rupture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.

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