Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), the nurse should expect which of the following findings?

• A. mental confusion
• B. muscular weakness
• C. sensory loss
• D. emotional liability

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with ALS typically present with progressive muscular weakness and wasting as a hallmark feature of the disease. This weakness affects voluntary muscles, leading to challenges in mobility and daily activities. Sensory loss is not a characteristic feature of ALS, and individuals usually maintain their mental clarity without experiencing mental confusion. Emotional liability, characterized by sudden, uncontrolled changes in emotions, is not a common finding in ALS. While individuals may experience periods of grief due to the progressive nature of the disease, emotional liability is not a usual manifestation. Therefore, the correct finding to expect when assessing a client with ALS is muscular weakness.

2. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Lasix (furosemide)
• B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• C. Lanoxin (digoxin)
• D. Dilantin (phenytoin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

3. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:

• A. Placenta previa.
• B. Eclampsia.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Uterine rupture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.

4. A nurse calls a health care provider to question a prescription written for a higher-than-normal dosage of morphine sulfate. The health care provider changes the prescription to a dosage within the normal range, and the nurse documents the new telephone prescription in accordance with the agency's guidelines in the client's record. Which other statement does the nurse document in the nursing notes?

• A. The health care provider made a mistake in the written prescription for morphine sulfate.
• B. An inaccurate dosage of morphine sulfate was prescribed and the health care provider was informed.
• C. The health care provider was contacted to correct a mistake in the dosage of morphine sulfate.
• D. The health care provider was contacted to clarify the prescription for morphine sulfate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse needs to document a factual, descriptive, and objective statement that does not include words indicating that an individual made a mistake or performed an incorrect action or procedure. If a health care provider's prescription must be questioned, the nurse should record that clarification regarding the prescription was sought. Therefore, the correct statement to document is that the health care provider was contacted to clarify the prescription for morphine sulfate. Choices A, B, and C imply errors or mistakes on the part of the health care provider, which is not the focus of the documentation in this scenario.

5. People living in poverty are most likely to obtain health care from:

• A. their primary care physician (family doctor)
• B. a neighborhood clinic
• C. specialists
• D. Emergency Departments or urgent care centers

Correct answer: D

Rationale: People living in poverty often face barriers to accessing regular healthcare services, leading them to seek care in Emergency Departments or urgent care centers. These facilities are more accessible and do not require appointments or insurance, making them a common choice for individuals with limited resources. Neighborhood clinics, while a good option, may not always be available or affordable for those in poverty. Specialists provide specialized care but usually require a referral from a primary care provider, which individuals in poverty may not have consistent access to. Therefore, Emergency Departments or urgent care centers are the most likely sources of healthcare for people living in poverty.

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