Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), the nurse should expect which of the following findings?

• A. mental confusion
• B. muscular weakness
• C. sensory loss
• D. emotional liability

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with ALS typically present with progressive muscular weakness and wasting as a hallmark feature of the disease. This weakness affects voluntary muscles, leading to challenges in mobility and daily activities. Sensory loss is not a characteristic feature of ALS, and individuals usually maintain their mental clarity without experiencing mental confusion. Emotional liability, characterized by sudden, uncontrolled changes in emotions, is not a common finding in ALS. While individuals may experience periods of grief due to the progressive nature of the disease, emotional liability is not a usual manifestation. Therefore, the correct finding to expect when assessing a client with ALS is muscular weakness.

2. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?

• A. The cause and mode of transmission are well understood.
• B. There is no known cure for the disease.
• C. When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.
• D. Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.

3. The nurse is teaching a client about erythema infectiosum. Which of the following factors is not correct?

• A. There is no rash.
• B. The disorder is uncommon in adults.
• C. There is no fever.
• D. There is sometimes a 'slapped face' appearance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the disorder is uncommon in adults. Erythema infectiosum, also known as Fifth's disease, commonly affects children and is characterized by a 'slapped face' appearance. It is associated with a rash and sometimes a low-grade fever. Therefore, the statement 'The disorder is uncommon in adults' is not correct, making it the correct answer. The other statements about the presence of a rash, 'slapped face' appearance, and the possibility of a fever are accurate in the context of erythema infectiosum.

4. For which of the following conditions might blood be drawn to assess uric acid levels?

• A. asthma
• B. gout
• C. diverticulitis
• D. meningitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Uric acid levels are commonly assessed in patients with gout. Gout is a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to inflammation and pain. Monitoring uric acid levels helps in diagnosing and managing gout. Asthma, diverticulitis, and meningitis are not conditions where blood tests for uric acid levels are typically necessary. Asthma is a respiratory condition, diverticulitis involves inflammation of the digestive tract, and meningitis is an infection of the meninges in the brain and spinal cord.

5. Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the agent of choice for which of the following infections?

• A. HIV
• B. AIDS
• C. candida
• D. herpes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically effective in treating herpes infections. It works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, shortening the duration of the infection. While Acyclovir can be used in HIV and AIDS patients to treat opportunistic viral infections, it is not a primary drug for managing HIV or AIDS itself. Candida is a type of fungus, and infections caused by Candida are treated with antifungal medications, not antivirals like Acyclovir. Therefore, the correct answer is herpes.

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