Nursing Elites

1. When a 17-year-old client arrives at the clinic suspecting a sexually transmitted infection, what information does the nurse provide concerning informed consent?

• A. She will need to sign an informed consent form.
• B. Her mother or father will need to be contacted for permission to treat her.
• C. A consent form is not needed if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection.
• D. Anyone over the age of 18 years may sign a consent form for her treatment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informed consent is a person's agreement to allow something, such as a treatment, to be performed. A consent form is required even if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection. If the client is a minor, the minor may sign the informed consent form in specific situations, including seeking treatment for a sexually transmitted infection. In this case, the 17-year-old client is seeking examination and treatment for a sexually transmitted infection, so she will need to sign the informed consent form. Contacting her parents for permission is not required in this situation. Choice C is incorrect because a consent form is necessary regardless of the medical issue. Choice D is incorrect because the individual's age is not the determining factor; rather, it is the nature of the medical service being sought that dictates the need for informed consent.

2. A client has signed the informed consent for mastectomy of the left breast. On the morning of the surgical procedure, the client asks the nurse several questions about the procedure that make it obvious that she does not have an adequate comprehension of the procedure. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Telling the client that she needed to ask these questions before signing the informed consent for surgery
• B. Contacting the surgeon and requesting that she visit the client to answer her questions
• C. Informing the client that she has the right to cancel the surgical procedure if she wishes
• D. Telling the client that it is her surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Informed consent is the authorization by a client or a client's legal representative to do something to the client. The surgeon is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and obtaining informed consent. If the client asks questions that alert the nurse to an inadequacy of comprehension on the client's part, the nurse has the obligation to contact the surgeon. Choice A is incorrect as the client should be allowed to ask questions even after signing the consent for surgery. Choice C is not the most appropriate response, as the primary concern is to address the client's lack of comprehension. Choice D is inaccurate, as while it is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure, in this scenario, the nurse should take immediate action to ensure the client's understanding. Requesting the surgeon to visit and answer the client's questions is the most appropriate response in this situation, as it directly addresses the client's concerns and ensures proper informed consent is obtained.

3. Which of the following tests is commonly performed on newborns with jaundice?

• A. blood urea nitrogen
• B. magnesium
• C. bilirubin
• D. prolactin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: bilirubin. A high bilirubin level is found in newborns with hepatic immaturity, leading to jaundice. Testing bilirubin levels is crucial in diagnosing and monitoring jaundice in newborns. Choices A, B, and D (blood urea nitrogen, magnesium, and prolactin) are not commonly performed tests for evaluating jaundice in newborns. Blood urea nitrogen is a measure of kidney function, magnesium levels are usually checked in metabolic disorders, and prolactin is a hormone related to lactation, none of which are directly relevant to assessing jaundice in newborns.

4. Which of the following adverse effects should the client on Floxin be alerted to?

• A. stunting of height in teens and young adults
• B. propensity for anovulatory uterine bleeding
• C. intractable diarrhea
• D. tendon rupture

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is tendon rupture. Floxin is a quinolone antibiotic commonly used in respiratory infections and pelvic/reproductive infections. One of the rare adverse effects associated with quinolones is tendon sheath rupture, often affecting the Achilles tendon. Therefore, patients taking Floxin should be alerted to the possibility of tendon rupture. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not typically associated with Floxin use and are not common adverse effects of quinolone antibiotics. Stunting of height is not a recognized adverse effect of Floxin. Anovulatory uterine bleeding is not a known side effect of quinolones. Intractable diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Floxin.

5. A client with a closed chest tube drainage system accidentally disconnects the chest tube while being turned by the nurse. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Submerge the end of the chest tube in a bottle of sterile water
• B. Clamp the chest tube with a Kelly clamp
• C. Call the health care provider
• D. Instruct the client to inhale and hold his breath

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a chest tube becomes disconnected, the priority action is to immediately reattach it to the drainage system or submerge the end in a bottle of sterile water or saline solution to reestablish a water seal. This helps prevent air from entering the pleural space and causing complications. Calling the health care provider is important but not the first action in this emergency. Instructing the client to inhale and hold his breath should be avoided as it can introduce atmospheric air into the pleural space, leading to potential issues. Clamping the chest tube is generally contraindicated, especially in cases of residual air leak or pneumothorax, as it may result in a tension pneumothorax by preventing air from escaping.

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