a 17 year old client arrives at the clinic and asks to be examined because she believes that she has contracted a sexually transmitted infection in re
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. When a 17-year-old client arrives at the clinic suspecting a sexually transmitted infection, what information does the nurse provide concerning informed consent?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informed consent is a person's agreement to allow something, such as a treatment, to be performed. A consent form is required even if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection. If the client is a minor, the minor may sign the informed consent form in specific situations, including seeking treatment for a sexually transmitted infection. In this case, the 17-year-old client is seeking examination and treatment for a sexually transmitted infection, so she will need to sign the informed consent form. Contacting her parents for permission is not required in this situation. Choice C is incorrect because a consent form is necessary regardless of the medical issue. Choice D is incorrect because the individual's age is not the determining factor; rather, it is the nature of the medical service being sought that dictates the need for informed consent.

2. When administering NSAID adjunctive therapy to an elderly client with cancer, the nurse must monitor:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an elderly client with cancer is receiving NSAID therapy, monitoring BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine levels is crucial. NSAIDs can cause renal toxicity, especially in the elderly. BUN and creatinine levels help assess renal function and detect early signs of renal impairment. Monitoring creatinine alone (Choice B) is not sufficient as BUN provides complementary information about renal function. Monitoring hemoglobin (Hgb) and hematocrit (Hct) (Choice C) is important for assessing anemia but not specific to NSAID therapy in the elderly. CFT (Choice D) is not a standard abbreviation in this context, and monitoring coagulation function is not directly related to NSAID therapy in this scenario.

3. The nurse provides a postoperative client with an analgesic medication and darkens the room before the client goes to sleep for the night. The nurse's actions:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's actions of providing an analgesic medication and darkening the room aim to decrease stimuli from the cerebral cortex. Reduction of environmental stimuli, especially light and noise, from the cerebral cortex, which is an area of arousal, facilitates sleep. By decreasing input to this area, the client is more likely to fall asleep and stay asleep. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the scenario does not involve stimulating hormonal changes, influencing the circadian rhythm, or alerting the hypothalamus.

4. The LPN needs to delegate a task to the nurse aide who is new to the unit. Which of these is the best option for the nurse to choose in proceeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Delegation is transferring responsibility for a task but sharing its accountability. It is the delegator's responsibility to ensure that the delegatee understands the task before it is performed and to follow up afterward to ensure it was completed correctly and safely. Option B is the best choice because it allows the nurse to observe the nurse aide performing the task without pressure, which can provide insights into the aide's abilities and understanding. This method also allows for immediate feedback and correction if needed. Choice A is incorrect because confirming understanding alone may not provide a complete picture of the aide's competence in performing the task. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests supervising only if needed, which may not provide adequate oversight for a new nurse aide. Choice D is incorrect because supervising the task being performed does not allow for an objective assessment of the aide's abilities and understanding.

5. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Brown-S�quard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.

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