Nursing Elites

1. When a 17-year-old client arrives at the clinic suspecting a sexually transmitted infection, what information does the nurse provide concerning informed consent?

• A. She will need to sign an informed consent form.
• B. Her mother or father will need to be contacted for permission to treat her.
• C. A consent form is not needed if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection.
• D. Anyone over the age of 18 years may sign a consent form for her treatment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informed consent is a person's agreement to allow something, such as a treatment, to be performed. A consent form is required even if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection. If the client is a minor, the minor may sign the informed consent form in specific situations, including seeking treatment for a sexually transmitted infection. In this case, the 17-year-old client is seeking examination and treatment for a sexually transmitted infection, so she will need to sign the informed consent form. Contacting her parents for permission is not required in this situation. Choice C is incorrect because a consent form is necessary regardless of the medical issue. Choice D is incorrect because the individual's age is not the determining factor; rather, it is the nature of the medical service being sought that dictates the need for informed consent.

2. A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for all of the following except:

• A. identifying risks.
• B. controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims.
• C. ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions.
• D. analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for identifying risks, controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims, and analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs. It is not responsible for ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions. Monitoring staff adherence to their job descriptions falls under the purview of departmental managers or supervisors. The primary focus of a risk management program is to assess, mitigate, and manage risks related to patient safety, quality of care, and financial implications, rather than overseeing staff job descriptions.

3. A nurse is reviewing the notes written by a nurse on a previous shift. Which note in the client's record reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation?

• A. The client's wound is healing well.
• B. The client seems anxious.
• C. The client's intake was 360 mL
• D. The client is voiding large amounts

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quality documentation and reporting require information to be factual, accurate, complete, current, and organized. Choice C, 'The client's intake was 360 mL,' reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation as it provides a specific and measurable observation. This note meets the criteria for quality documentation by being specific and quantifiable. Choices A, B, and D lack specificity and quantifiability. Choice A includes a subjective term 'well,' choice B uses 'seems' indicating uncertainty, and choice D uses a vague term 'large' without quantifying the amount.

4. The goals of palliative care include all of the following except:

• A. giving clients with life-threatening illnesses the best quality of life possible.
• B. taking care of the whole person"?body, mind, spirit, heart, and soul.
• C. no interventions are needed because the client is near death.
• D. supporting the needs of the family and client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct goal of palliative care is to provide comprehensive care that addresses the physical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs of the dying client until the end of life. Therefore, the statement 'no interventions are needed because the client is near death' is incorrect as interventions are still essential to ensure comfort and quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are all aligned with the goals of palliative care, focusing on improving the quality of life, providing holistic care, and supporting both the family and the client.

5. Which hormone in the urine is specifically indicative of pregnancy?

• A. estrogen
• B. progesterone
• C. testosterone
• D. human chorionic gonadotropin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin is the hormone specifically indicative of pregnancy as it is produced by the placenta after implantation. It can be detected in urine and blood samples to confirm pregnancy. Estrogen and progesterone play crucial roles in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy but are not specific indicators of pregnancy on their own. Testosterone is a hormone primarily associated with male reproductive functions and is not directly related to pregnancy, making it an incorrect choice in this context.

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