Nursing Elites

1. When a 17-year-old client arrives at the clinic suspecting a sexually transmitted infection, what information does the nurse provide concerning informed consent?

• A. She will need to sign an informed consent form.
• B. Her mother or father will need to be contacted for permission to treat her.
• C. A consent form is not needed if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection.
• D. Anyone over the age of 18 years may sign a consent form for her treatment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informed consent is a person's agreement to allow something, such as a treatment, to be performed. A consent form is required even if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection. If the client is a minor, the minor may sign the informed consent form in specific situations, including seeking treatment for a sexually transmitted infection. In this case, the 17-year-old client is seeking examination and treatment for a sexually transmitted infection, so she will need to sign the informed consent form. Contacting her parents for permission is not required in this situation. Choice C is incorrect because a consent form is necessary regardless of the medical issue. Choice D is incorrect because the individual's age is not the determining factor; rather, it is the nature of the medical service being sought that dictates the need for informed consent.

2. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:

• A. Placenta previa.
• B. Eclampsia.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Uterine rupture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.

3. Which of the following statements by a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) indicates adequate understanding?

• A. "I should eat right before bedtime."?
• B. "I should eat large meals."?
• C. "I should sit up after eating."?
• D. "I should lie flat after eating."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement for a client with GERD is, 'I should sit up after eating.' This helps prevent reflux by keeping the stomach contents down. Choice A is incorrect as eating right before bedtime can exacerbate GERD symptoms by increasing the likelihood of reflux during the night. Choice B is incorrect because consuming large meals can lead to increased stomach pressure and worsen reflux symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because lying flat after eating can promote reflux due to gravity assisting the flow of stomach contents into the esophagus, worsening GERD.

4. When the healthcare provider is determining the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal airway to insert, what part of a client's body should they measure?

• A. corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
• B. corner of the eye to the top of the ear
• C. tip of the chin to the sternum
• D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When selecting the correct size of an oropharyngeal airway, the healthcare provider should measure from the corner of the client's mouth to the tragus of the ear. This measurement ensures that the airway is the appropriate length to maintain a clear air passage for exchange. Measuring from the corner of the eye to the top of the ear (Choice B) is inaccurate and not a standard measurement for selecting the size of an oropharyngeal airway. Measuring from the tip of the chin to the sternum (Choice C) is irrelevant to determining the correct size of the airway. Similarly, measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe (Choice D) is also incorrect and does not provide the necessary measurement for selecting an oropharyngeal airway size.

5. A client with a left arm fracture complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. On further assessment, the nurse notes that the client experiences increased pain during passive motion compared with active motion of the left arm. Based on these assessment findings, which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Contacting the health care provider
• B. Checking if it is time for more pain medication
• C. Encouraging the client to continue active range of motion exercises of the left arm
• D. Repositioning the client for comfort

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to contact the health care provider. The client with early acute compartment syndrome typically complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. Additionally, the affected client experiences greater pain during passive motion compared to active motion. In this situation, it is crucial to notify the health care provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Contacting the health care provider is essential to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition. Checking for more pain medication, encouraging active range of motion exercises, or repositioning the client may not address the underlying issue of acute compartment syndrome and could delay necessary interventions. Therefore, the priority action should be to involve the healthcare provider for prompt assessment and treatment.

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