Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is not an advanced directive?

• A. informed consent
• B. living will
• C. durable power of attorney for health care
• D. health care proxy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informed consent is the process of obtaining permission from a patient before conducting a healthcare intervention. It is not considered an advanced directive. A living will is a legal document that outlines a person's preferences for medical treatment if they are unable to communicate. A durable power of attorney for health care designates a person to make medical decisions on behalf of the patient. A health care proxy, which is another term for a durable power of attorney for health care, also involves appointing someone to make healthcare decisions for an individual if they become unable to do so. Therefore, the correct answer is 'informed consent,' as it is not an advanced directive but rather a different aspect of patient care.

2. When a drug is listed as Category X and prescribed to women of child-bearing age/capacity, the nurse and the interdisciplinary team should counsel the client that:

• A. Pregnancy tests are not reliable while taking the drug.
• B. She must use a reliable form of birth control.
• C. She should not take the Category X drug on days she has intercourse.
• D. She must follow up with an endocrinologist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a drug is categorized as Category X, it signifies that there are significant risks of fetal abnormalities if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, women of child-bearing age/capacity should use reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy while on the medication. This ensures that the client avoids the potential harm to the fetus. Option A is incorrect because pregnancy tests are not unreliable due to the drug, but rather the risk is related to potential harm to the fetus. Option C is incorrect as avoiding the drug only on days of intercourse does not provide sufficient protection against pregnancy. Option D is incorrect as the need for an endocrinologist is not directly related to the use of Category X drugs.

3. A client states, 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.' Which statement indicates to the nurse that the client needs further information on how to use the diaphragm?

• A. 'I need to reapply spermicidal cream with repeated intercourse.'
• B. 'The diaphragm needs to be filled with spermicidal cream before insertion.'
• C. 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.'
• D. 'The diaphragm can be inserted as long as 6 hours before intercourse.'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the statement, 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.' This statement indicates a lack of understanding about the correct use of the diaphragm. The diaphragm must be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness and reduce the risk of pregnancy. Leaving the diaphragm in place for an extended period can lead to toxic shock syndrome. Choice A is correct as spermicidal cream needs to be reapplied before each act of intercourse for optimal contraceptive efficacy. Choice B is a correct statement as the diaphragm should be filled with spermicidal cream before insertion to increase its effectiveness. Choice D is also accurate as the diaphragm can be inserted up to 6 hours before intercourse to allow time for proper placement and effectiveness.

4. The LPN is checking for residual before administering enteral feeding through a PEG tube. Which of these steps is incorrect?

• A. The LPN elevates the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees.
• B. If the residual is greater than 200mL, the LPN should not administer the enteral feeding.
• C. The LPN should discard the residual before administering the tube feeding.
• D. The residual pH level is tested to ensure appropriate placement.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The incorrect step is choice C. The residual should be discarded before administering the tube feeding. Discarding the residual is essential to prevent contamination and ensure accurate measurement of the enteral feeding. Elevating the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees (choice A) is correct as it helps prevent aspiration during feeding. Testing the pH level of the residual (choice D) ensures proper placement of the tube. Withholding feeding if the residual is greater than 200mL (choice B) is crucial to prevent overfeeding, making this statement correct.

5. When evaluating the lab work of a client in hepatic coma, which of the following lab tests is most important?

• A. blood urea nitrogen
• B. serum calcium
• C. serum ammonia
• D. serum creatinine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is in hepatic coma due to liver failure, the liver cannot metabolize amino acids completely, leading to elevated ammonia levels. Increased ammonia can cause brain-tissue irritation, worsening the coma. Therefore, monitoring serum ammonia levels is crucial in assessing the severity of hepatic coma. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of hepatic coma. Blood urea nitrogen primarily assesses kidney function, serum calcium levels are not directly related to hepatic coma, and serum creatinine is more indicative of kidney function rather than liver function in this scenario.

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