Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following symptoms is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia in the client with a spinal cord injury?

• A. sudden onset of headache
• B. flushed face
• C. hypotension
• D. nasal congestion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by a sudden onset of symptoms due to an overactive autonomic nervous system. Hypotension is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia; instead, hypertension is a hallmark sign. Therefore, hypotension is the correct answer. Flushed face, sudden onset of headache, and nasal congestion are classic symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia caused by a noxious stimulus below the level of the spinal cord injury. These symptoms result from the body's attempt to regulate blood pressure when the normal feedback loop is interrupted.

2. A case manager is reviewing the records of the clients in the nursing unit. Which note(s) in a client's record indicate an unexpected outcome and the need for follow-up?

• A. A client is performing their own colostomy irrigations.
• B. A client with a central venous catheter has a temperature of 100.6�F.
• C. A client who has just undergone surgery has a urine output of more than 30 mL/hr.
• D. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is self-administering insulin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A case manager is a healthcare professional responsible for coordinating a client's care from admission through and after discharge. They evaluate and update the plan of care as needed, monitoring for unexpected outcomes and providing follow-up. A temperature of 100.6�F in a client with a central venous catheter is an unexpected outcome that requires follow-up due to the potential indication of an infection. Choices A, C, and D describe expected outcomes and appropriate self-care management. The client self-irrigating their colostomy, a post-surgical client having adequate urine output, and a newly diagnosed diabetic self-administering insulin are all positive indicators of self-care and expected outcomes, not requiring immediate follow-up.

3. When are pressure ulcers most likely to occur?

• A. when clients are left in one position in bed for extended periods of time.
• B. when clients are underweight.
• C. when clients are overweight.
• D. only in underweight and overweight clients.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pressure ulcers usually occur over bony prominences and are caused by decreased circulation. The client who is left in one position in bed for extended periods of time is more prone to decreased circulation to an area of the body and to acquiring a pressure ulcer. Choices B and C are incorrect as pressure ulcers are not exclusive to underweight or overweight clients. The key factor is prolonged pressure on the skin, not the weight of the client. Therefore, the correct answer is that pressure ulcers are most likely to occur when clients are immobilized in one position for extended periods of time.

4. Which of the following statements indicates that the provider understands how to promote rest and sleep for the client?

• A. If you would prefer not to be disturbed, we can postpone all vital signs and assessments until tomorrow morning.
• B. With your physical therapy appointments, you cannot nap more during the day even if your sleep is often interrupted at nighttime.
• C. I can try to incorporate any sleep rituals or an ideal bedtime into your routine.
• D. We cannot group together medications, assessments, and other interventions so you may have multiple interruptions at night.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I can try to incorporate any sleep rituals or an ideal bedtime into your routine.' To promote rest and sleep, the provider should consider incorporating the client's preferred sleep rituals or bedtime routine. This statement shows an understanding of the importance of individualizing care to promote restful sleep. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address promoting rest and sleep. Choice A focuses on postponing assessments, Choice B addresses napping during the day, and Choice D mentions multiple interruptions at night, none of which directly support promoting rest and sleep for the client.

5. The nurse has completed client teaching about introducing solid foods to an infant. To evaluate teaching, the nurse asks the mother to identify an appropriate first solid food. Which of the following is an appropriate response?

• A. pureed canned squash
• B. pureed apples
• C. yogurt
• D. infant rice cereal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is infant rice cereal. Single-grain infant cereals are recommended as the first solid food because they are easily digestible and have added iron content. Choice C, yogurt, is incorrect because yogurt is a milk product and should be delayed until the child is 12 months old due to the risk of milk allergy. Choices A and B are incorrect because fruits and vegetables are typically introduced after cereals to help the infant get accustomed to solid foods gradually.

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