NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Test Bank
1. Which of the following ethnic groups is at highest risk in the United States for pesticide-related injuries?
- A. Native American
- B. Asian-Pacific
- C. Norwegian
- D. Hispanic
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hispanic.' Hispanic individuals in the United States are at a higher risk for pesticide-related injuries due to their representation among migrant workers in agricultural settings. This exposure to pesticides in their work environments increases their risk compared to other ethnic groups. Choice A, 'Native American,' although indigenous populations may face environmental health disparities, the higher risk in this context is among Hispanic individuals. Choice B, 'Asian-Pacific,' and Choice C, 'Norwegian,' do not have the same level of exposure to pesticides as Hispanic migrant workers, making them less susceptible to pesticide-related injuries.
2. What is a true statement about post-discharge follow-up?
- A. The nurse should ensure the client is educated on their discharge instructions.
- B. If the client seems stable, they likely do not need a follow-up visit.
- C. The physician is responsible for ensuring the client has their prescriptions upon discharge.
- D. If the client has questions, the nurse should address them before discharge.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement is that the nurse should ensure the client is educated on their discharge instructions. This is crucial to promote continuity of care and prevent adverse events. The responsibility of educating the client falls on the nurse, not assuming stability without a follow-up visit. While the physician may prescribe medications, it is the nurse's responsibility to ensure the client has them before discharge. Instructing the client to bring up questions at a follow-up appointment is not ideal; all questions should be addressed before discharge to ensure the client's understanding and compliance.
3. Signs of internal bleeding include all of the following except:
- A. painful or swollen extremities
- B. a tender, rigid abdomen
- C. vomiting bile
- D. bruising
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Vomiting bile is not typically a sign of internal bleeding but is more commonly associated with issues in the gastrointestinal tract. Signs of internal bleeding include painful or swollen extremities, a tender, rigid abdomen, and bruising. Painful or swollen extremities can indicate bleeding from an extremity injury, a tender, rigid abdomen can signal abdominal bleeding, and bruising can result from blood vessel damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'C: vomiting bile,' as it is not a typical sign of internal bleeding.
4. A nurse is preparing for the admission of a client with pulmonary tuberculosis. Which action reflects the use of evidence-based practice in the care of the client?
- A. Keeping the door to the client's room closed
- B. Fitting the client for an N95 or HEPA (high-efficiency particulate air) mask to be worn at all times
- C. Placing the client in a semiprivate room with a cohort client
- D. Using a surgical mask when entering the client's room
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Evidence-based practice is an approach to client care that integrates the client's preferences, clinical expertise, and the best research evidence to deliver quality care. In the case of pulmonary tuberculosis, which is transmitted through the airborne route, keeping the door to the client's room closed is crucial to prevent the spread of infection. Placing the client in a semiprivate room with a cohort client is not recommended for airborne precautions; a private room is required to prevent transmission. Fitting the client for an N95 or HEPA mask is essential for the nurse's protection when entering the room, not for the client to wear at all times. Using a surgical mask when entering the client's room is not sufficient for airborne precautions; an N95 or HEPA mask is necessary.
5. A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child's scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?
- A. The history and presentation might indicate chickenpox, a highly contagious disease.
- B. The lesions might indicate a noncontagious infection that does not require isolation.
- C. The history and presentation might indicate an infectious illness called impetigo.
- D. The lesions are not contagious unless others have open wounds or lesions themselves.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The scenario describes classic impetigo, characterized by maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage, typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Antibiotic therapy is usually indicated for impetigo. Chickenpox, a highly contagious disease, presents with a history of high fever followed by a vesicular rash, different from the described maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage. Choice A is incorrect as the presentation is not consistent with chickenpox. Choice B is incorrect because impetigo is contagious, especially through direct contact. Choice D is also incorrect as impetigo is a contagious skin infection regardless of others having open wounds or lesions.
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